Mark

To all,

i haven’t read through all comments yet, but just have time for one brief thought.

Since all but one lexicon and other greek sources identify authority with kephale from what i’ve read, it’s hard don’t you think to disagree with the majority. BUt maybe Gengwell is correct, they all just have their biases.

But then it makes me wonder, why so many of you rely on Sue’s research and conclusions. Is she not also biased in her research? Just seems like the very argument you want to use against the majority of scholars in this area is a little flawed. Why do you trust Sue over others? IS it some bias of your own to stick with your own interpretation?
Let’s be realistic about this. Give me a better reason to ignore the majority of scholars. Note also my point about looking at people, pre egal/comp debate- i think you would get a much fairer response.

Sue,
I’m very serious on this topic and i’ve read your research before, but i’m still not convinced. The whole argument falls to pieces regarding the LXX, since there are instances when kephale is used to mean authority or leader- you may dismiss them, but they are there. Like i have challenged you before, show me one use in the LXX where kephale is meant to translate ‘source’? Let’s get things in perspective! Why are we choosing to select a meaning that is not related to human relationships (i.e source), but not only that, it is used as the plural not singular. Now i know you don’t like source, but what is the alternative, and how does that make sense of the biblical passages?
Would you argue that the majority of scholars in this field of your’s are simply biased? WHy should we believe you that your research is not biased more so than others?

Thanks