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Authority Vs Submission Ephesians 522 Continuing Comments

2010-06-01 commentary Cheryl Schatz

Since our last post on authority and submission had so many comments, it appears it is going to crash the post like another post did. So I am asking everyone to continue their comments on this post (comments post #2) so that we can continue without having a crash

Date: 2010-06-01
URL: https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2010/06/01/authority-vs-submission-ephesians-522-continuing-comments/


Mutual submission on Women in Ministry blog by Cheryl Schatz

Since our last post on authority and submission had so many comments, it appears it is going to crash the post like another post did.  So I am asking everyone to continue their comments on this post (comments post #2) so that we can continue without having a crash.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-01

It looks like the last post crashed with too many comments. I should have started a new post a lot sooner. I am going to see if I can remove a few comments if that will help and post them here.

Here is Susanna’s last comment:

Hay Mara, since you enjoy early church stuff, here’s some more:

“On the Council for Biblical Manhood and Womanhood’s Web site, Grudem challenges egalitarians to provide an example in which hypotasso is being applied “to relationships between persons and where it does not carry the sense of being subject to an authority.” We have already found this to be true in Ephesians 5:21-33, James 4:4-10, and 1 Pet 3:1-6, and we find additional examples from the writings of the Apostolic Fathers. Clement of Rome, who is believed by many to be the Clement mentioned by Paul in Philippians 4:3, is an early witness to the mutual subjection of all believers.

Let us take our body for an example. The head is nothing without the feet, and the feet are nothing without the head; yea, the very smallest members of our body are necessary and useful to the whole body. But all work (lit. all breathe together) harmoniously together, and are under one common rule (lit. use one subjection) for the preservation of the whole body. Let our whole body, then, be preserved in, Christ Jesus; and let every one be subject to his neighbour, according to the special gift (lit. according as he has been placed in his charism) bestowed upon him.

Polycarp was the disciple of John the Apostle, and in his letter love, humility and good works are all part of mutual subjection.

Stand fast, therefore, in these things, and follow the example of the Lord, being firm and unchangeable in the faith, loving the brotherhood, and being attached to one another, joined together in the truth, exhibiting the meekness of the Lord in your intercourse with one another, and despising no one. When you can do good, defer it not, because “alms delivers from death.” Be all of you subject one to another having your conduct blameless among the Gentiles,” that ye may both receive praise for your good works, and the Lord may not be blasphemed through you. But woe to him by whom the name of the Lord is blasphemed! Teach, therefore, sobriety to all, and manifest it also in your own conduct.

The disciple of Polycarp, Irenaues, wrote in his only surviving work, Against Heresies, “Submission to God is eternal rest, so that they who shun the light have a place worthy of their flight; and those who fly from eternal rest, have a habitation in accordance with their fleeing. Also Origen connected submission with salvation in the beginning of the third century.

What, then, is this “putting under” by which all things must be made subject to Christ? I am of opinion that it is this very subjection by which we also wish to be subject to Him, by which the apostles also were subject, and all the saints who have been followers of Christ. For the name “subjection,” by which we are subject to Christ, indicates that the salvation which proceeds from Him belongs to His subjects, agreeably to the declaration of David, “Shall not my soul be subject unto God? From Him cometh my salvation.”

Kristen 2010-06-01

I find 1 Peter 5:5 to be compelling. Peter has spent most of his letter telling Christians in a pagan culture how to get along in that culture, including submission to the authorities which are in place in that culture (acknowledging the existence of an authority is not the same thing as setting up an authority or even endorsing the authority as having a God-given right to rule. It is simply acknowledging the existence of an authority.) Peter then goes on to inter-church relations– and just as we see in Paul’s letter to the Ephesians (focusing on inter-church relations), we see that “one another” language.
Here’s a link to 1 Peter 5:5 in an online interlinear:
http://scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/1pe5.pdf
The meaning from the interlinear appears to be “All of you, submit to one another in humility like a slave’s apron.”
The use of “all of you” negates the possibility of arguing here that Peter simply meant “some (those under authority) to others (those in authority).” He just finished giving specific instructions to elders (as those in authority), and then to youths (as those under authority)– and then he goes on to say, “all of you, submit to one another in humility.” Meaning both the elders and the youths– in fact, the whole church– is to submit to one another. And what does the submission look like? It looks like “humility like a slave’s apron.”
To address what Mark said in his post #614 in the earlier thread– This does not mean that the elders were supposed to treat the youths as if the youths were in authority over them. Submission is not some sort of blanket application that looks the same in every case. People are individuals, and submission is a heart of service and yielding to the real needs of another.
I work in the nursery at my church, and I can honestly say that a large part of what I do involves this sort of submission to the babies. I don’t force them to do what I want, I look at their needs and what they want to do. If the baby suddenly loses in the book we’re “reading,” I lay the book aside. I let the baby take the lead. If the baby shows interest in a toy, I help the baby reach the toy. Even though I am in authority over the baby, and will exercise that authority when necessary (such as when the baby hits another baby), my submission to the baby is NOT about authority. It’s something else entirely. It has nothing to do with who is in authority. It has to do with the baby having needs for human interaction on its own terms, and my ability to meet it according to those terms, where it is incapable of meeting me.
This is clearly not the same sort of submission that two adults would use towards one another. But it’s submission, nevertheless.
The Bible speaks frequently of submission as submission to authority– but not always. The “one another” verses cannot, by their very nature, imply authority.
This question of what “submission” means is, then, tangential to the question of whether the husband’s authority over the wife as seen in the Bible is just an acknowledged part of the (fallen) culture, or is part of God’s original design and His plan for Kingdom relationships. I have seen no evidence in the Scriptures to the latter.

Lydia 2010-06-01

Mark wrote”

” I find it fascinating that you say Christians talk about ‘gifts’ not roles. I think there is an element of truth to your claim, but i also think ‘gift’ based theologies and practices are increasingly becoming unbiblical. Any ‘gift’ that is bestowed will always be in accord with Biblical revelation. Not only that who decides that one is ‘gifted’.”

Wow Mark. Talk about making Grand Canyon sized leaps! I mention gifts and all of a sudden I am a pentecostal! “Spiritual gifts” as in the eye cannot say to the hand I have no need of you. Everyone in the Body is needed. (The true Body, of course)

You do realize that you come here with preconceived notions. I think you picture (like most of us who were brainwashed ) a bunch of feminazi’s in sensible shoes who want to ordain homosexual pastors.

You would be shocked at how conservative I am not only in politics but in Doctrine. I just happen to know that wanting authority over others in the Body is sinful. A true overseer is the lowliest servant who cares for souls. Puts others before him or herself. Jesus Christ is the authority.

Why not ask me to clarify before you jump to conclusions? While you are at it, why not show me in NC scripture where it mentions ‘laity’. Or did you not know in the NC, all true believers are “priests”? Even women are included in that.

“As in relation to culture wars, the egalitarian ‘gift’ based interpretations of scripture and practice may not be so innocent as you seemingly hint at. We are all products of our culture, egalitarianism included and probably more so than any other.”

Gifts have nothing to do with egal or comp. They are given by the Holy Spirit to edify the Body. Just so you don’t go leaping off tall buildings again, understand I do not believe in speaking in tongues. But I do believe in the indwelling Holy Spirit but that the Holy Spirit illuminates the truth of the Word to us. (Best seminary professor ever!)

The Danvers statement WAS a response to the culture. The entire comp movement was a response to the culture. If you want to discuss the feminization of the culture, you gotta go back to the early 1900’s where the true feminists were hanging out.

The relationship pre fall was egalitarian. Ezer is help.God is described as Ezer. So are men in the OT. Eve was a help comparable to Adam. His mirror, so to speak. Adam recognized this…we know by his own words. They are ONE FLESH. How does one get authority over out of ONE FLESH, I will never know.
So, egal is pre fall. Now, in Christ, there is neither male nor female. IN CHRIST…with full inheritance.

You are speaking to a former comp. I lived it. Read all the books and inside I knew something was wrong. All around me men and women were focusing on each other’s roles. It took the focus off CHRIST IN ME and onto the roles and rules. It was a works religion.

Only until I decided to really study the Word did I find different. Mutual love and submission with Jesus Christ as each believers authority. There is no layer between a woman and her Savior.

Mark 2010-06-01

Lydia,

It sounds like i offended you, that was not my intention. I was simply responding to your ‘culture’ wars remarks.

I have to admit that you are the first egalitarian i have ever spoken with who is not a pentecostal or at least charasmatic in their theology!

Now please don’t be hypocritical and say i am the only one with pre-conceived ideas, that’s non-sense. For example you said that ‘wanting authority is sinful’. Who said anything about that? I don’t want authority, i just believe the Bible teaches it, so who now has ‘preconcieved’ ideas??? I’d be happy to accept egalitarianism if i thought it was Biblical because i see how much damage authority does when in the hands of sinful men and women.

The Danvers statement was a response to egalitarianism not the secular culture. Sure the two are tied but you overstate your case. It was a response to Christians not unbelievers.

You have a few huge statements in your response that need addressing. The first is that comp is works based religion! Are you really prepared to state such an accusation and accuse comps as heretics or was that just a rash response? Second, you said that you only discovered egal after you read the word- so you didn’t read the Bible before then, and people like Grudem and Piper don’t read the Word of God? C, mon now, it is obvious when one saids such things that emotions are governing the discussion.

Let’s be honest, you have over reacted to my comment. You bring serious charges against me and loads of other saying we are heretics and promote ‘works’ religion. Maybe this is a ‘first order’ issue for you, i don’t know?

Finally, if you truly do read the Bible and have a true desire for the truth, why is it that you use Gal 3:28 as a proof text. Any time an egal uses this it makes me cringe, since the whole setting of that verse is in relation to salvation not ministry or human/human relationships. I’ll be honest and say it is disappointing to see such poor hermenutics in so many egalitarians. Some i greatly respect (Gordon Fee) but others not so much. It’s good to discuss Gen 1-3, Eph 5, 1 Tim 2 etc, but Gal 3:28 is terrible. You might aswell go tell a Jew they are no longer Jewish but gentile. Paul’s point is salvation through faith is not gender, culture or socially exclusive.

Susanna Krizo 2010-06-01

Mark you wrote: “I’m interested to hear how you believe you have answered Grudem’s challenge. Can you explain how James 4:4-10 is reciprocal submission with no authority? Can you explain how 1 Peter 3 is mutual submission with no authority? Can you flesh out how you believe the apostolic fathers were teaching an egalitarian mutual submission with no authority?”
Absolutely, dear brother Mark! Oh by the way I am the third egal who is not pentecostal. At present I am Presbyterian but about to become a Free Methodist (due to moving to a Free Methodist conference Center).
Let’s start with Jas 4. If hypotasso means subjection to authority, we have a huge problem with this verse since it would mean that as long as we do not submit to God and are in allegiance with the devil we have authority over God. Does it make sense? I didn’t think so. The antonym of hypotasso is antitasso (to resist). I.e as long as submit (are friends with) to the devil, we resist God. When we submit to God, we automatically resist the devil. The same is found in Rom 13: either you submit to the civil government, or you resist it. The text does not say that you have the choice of either having authority over the civil government or submitting to it. The choice is either to submit or to resist the government. Note also that God resists the proud but gives grace to the humble; the civil governments will resists the lawbreaker and give praise to the one who does good. There is a parallel and it is the key to the question you asked. The one who submits, i.e. does not resist, is praised, the one who resists is him or herself resisted. In both cases the issue is not about usurping authority (as 1 Tim 2 is falsely translated) but the choice we all have in either agreeing with or resisting the other party. The civil authorities function within agreed rules and limits, i.e. they are not to seek selfish gain, and their submission to the people is seen in how they perform their task. If they seek personal gain, they have become tyrants and the Bible explicitly condemns tyrants. God has all authority as our Creator, but in the case of Jas 4 it is not his authority that is the question: it is our personal allegiance that is the question. We can choose to love God or follow the devil. Note that chapter 4 begins with the condemnation of adultery: the Christian community has committed adultery in that they have loved the world (and the devil) instead of God. This is significant for our understanding of Eph 5: Adultery is a breach of the love and devotion a wife owes her husband. I.e. resist all other temptations and submit to your husband as he submits (loves and remains devoted) to you. In Jas 4 the cure is to submit to God and resist the devil. This would not be possible if there was a hierarchy.

Mark 2010-06-02

Dave,

I think we have a similar sense of humuor…maybe it’s the Aussie blood, i dunno. I have accepted your challenge to look at dictionary entries and found them interesting. Especially in light of claims that comps give egals definitions that are not correct, such as ‘identical’. Bare with me as i look at some meanings. I’m basing what i say on the assumption that you believe in ‘mutual submission’, or ‘reciprocal submission’. So here goes!

BDAG translates hypotasso as i’m sure we all know as ‘subordinate’

Most english translations make hypotasso as ‘submit’. So according to the Oxford dictionary submit means…

“accept or yield to a superior force or stronger person”

So it doesn’t appear that the english term ‘submit’ allows for such a concept as ‘mutual’ since it involves a ‘superior force’. But what about ‘submission’ which is similar but different…

“the action or fact of submitting”

The Oxford allows the term ‘submitting’ which is grouped under the same title as ‘submit’. So again it appears that the english words ‘submit’ or ‘submission’ do not allow for a mutual or reciprocal force. Therefore are comps all that wrong! It seems hard to understand the egal system when it uses terms that are oxymoron’s in nature. But what about ‘mutual’…maybe that helps qualify the term submit…

“experienced or done by each of two or more parties towards the other or others”

It seems that this is quite good. What A does to B, B does to A. But we must ask how does that fit with the term ‘submit’ or ‘submission’, since by definition it requires a ‘superior force’ to exist. Now reciprocal…

“given, felt or done in return”

Another good definition…what A does to B, B does to A. Now to me, this appears ‘identical’ in nature. Both mutual and reciprocal say that it is ‘done towards others’ or ‘done in return’.

So i maintain that the phrase ‘mutual submission’ is an oxymoron in the English grammar. To ‘submit’ or be in ‘submission’ requires according to the Oxford dictionary a ‘superior force’, so how can it be mutual, since one is superior?

So now how does this ‘mutual submission’ work in practice. You say it is not identical in all relationships which i think is right…but then we must ask, is it then ‘mutual’ at all? Apparently not! It seems to me that the egal system is a nonsense statement since mutual submission is an oxymoron. It’s not mutual because it does not look the same in all relationships, and it is not submission becasue it denies a ‘superior force’. The egal phrase ‘mutual submission’ is a contradiction, so please don’t accuse comps for giving wrong definitions to your terms. You need to re-calculate your terminology so that it does not mean ‘submit’ because you deny authority, and so that it does not mean mutual, since it does not behave the same in all situations or circumstances.

Mark 2010-06-02

HI Cheryl,

I was just re-reading through your son Ryan’s comment and had a few questions. I realise you are not him, but i assume you know his train of thought.

He said “In other words, because the husband is the source of the wife (just like Christ is the source of the church) and therefore she his equal, they should be mutually submitting to one another in love. (The church is also treated as the equal of Christ in the sense that the new person will have a new body and will no longer sin).

I’m not even going to get into the ‘source’ debate, but i wonder what he means. In what way is the husband the source of his wife? What does that mean from the context? Then in what way does that parallel the Church and Christ?

Ryan saids the Church is ‘equal’ in the sense that we have a new body and don’t sin. Is Ryan here talking about now or in the new heavens and earth? What in the context makes it futuristic like that? If he saids the Church/Christ paradigm is in the future, then it be necessary for the comparison to say that the husband/wife paradigm is for the future. It therefore does not apply today, but even worse goes against the teaching that in heaven there is no marriage? This doesn’t make sense.

I wonder how Ryan thinks that the Church here is described as being equal to Christ when the church is told to submit! Christ is described as the head, the church His body, the saviour, and the church is told to submit to Christ and Ryan looks at all this and draws the conclusion that the church is ‘equal of Christ in the sense that the new person will have a new body and will no longer sin’…hah…did i miss something here? Talk about an importation of ideas into the passage.

Hope you can answer some of these for me. Thanks

Dave 2010-06-02

Mark – thanks for taking the challenge!

You said, “I’m basing what i say on the assumption that you believe in ‘mutual submission’, or ‘reciprocal submission’.”
This was not necessary. I think if we understand submission first we will see how it can be mutual later.

You said, “BDAG translates hypotasso as i’m sure we all know as ’subordinate’”
Literally hypotasso means to place oneself under another. In light of this we need to determine if BDAG has used the correct English word when they provide the word “subordinate”. You see, if I place myself under another, then this is something that I have chosen to do. After all, why would Paul tell us to do something in Eph 5:21 that we have no choice in? The nature of submission is that there is choice.

So, according to Webster’s Dictionary, is this what “subordinate” means? Apparently it means “to set in order” by “order, class of rank; occupying a lower position in a scale, inferior in nature, power, importance, etc”. The thing about subordination is it is determined by things that are often out of our control. This is why it speaks of things like ‘inferiority by nature.’

You then said, “Most english translations make hypotasso as ’submit’.”
Glad to hear it! You said, “ So according to the Oxford dictionary submit means…“accept or yield to a superior force or stronger person”.

Hmmm, Webster’s gives us a bit more info, it says “to put under”, “To yield yourself to the power of another (not necessarily superior), and under submission we find words like, “meekness” and “humble”. To me this sounds like a much more accurate description of hypotasso. Would you not agree Mark?

Note the difference between the two. One has to do with placing things in a natural order – something we might or might not have control over. The other has to do with where we choose to place ourselves – it is about the choice of being the last, not the first.

You then said, “So it doesn’t appear that the english term ’submit’ allows for such a concept as ‘mutual’ since it involves a ’superior force’. But what about ’submission’ which is similar but different…“the action or fact of submitting”The Oxford allows the term ’submitting’ which is grouped under the same title as ’submit’. So again it appears that the english words ’submit’ or ’submission’ do not allow for a mutual or reciprocal force. Therefore are comps all that wrong!”
Hang on there big fella! Because it is something that we can choose to do, then I can do it to you, and you can choose to submit to me. Subordination, however, does not allow for mutuality because when you place things in an order they go from highest to lowest which dictates their position.

You then said, “ It seems hard to understand the egal system when it uses terms that are oxymoron’s in nature.”
According to the dictionary, we haven’t.

With regards to what you say about the word ‘mutual’, I think with the correct understanding of hypotasso the rest of your comment is seen as being incorrect. Perhaps your Oxford dictionary says submission is to a superior force, but my Webster’s does not mention this. Which is correct? Webster’s of course, as well as the other two dictionaries I looked up that did NOT mention that submission was to a superior force. Further, “submission” is a term that is used to describe the actions of a person who has lost a dual or a fight. In the case of knights, you submitted so you could have your life. Some chose not to submit, even though they had been beaten. They died – but the chose not to submit, which shows that those who submit to have their life spared still chose to submit. So even in this use (I suggest that this is where your dictionary is coming from) there is an issue of choice!

Mark, you suggest that because we say the submission will look different in different relationships it is not mutual. But this goes against your own definition of ‘mutual’. If I submit to you by washing behind your big ears and you submit to me by wiping my rampant snoz – we have submitted mutually. Submission is the thing that is mutual – not the nose wiping or the ear washing.

So, I suggest you recalculate your own terminology. I should add I am not denying authority. It is not in the Eph passage to deny.

Finally, Mark can love be mutual? Can we agape mutually? Can we bear one anothers burdens? Can we pray for each other mutually? According to your understanding of ‘mutuality’, apparently not. We do not have the same needs, so we will not pray the same things for each other. Does that mean we cannot mutually pray?

Again, Jesus told us to all carry our cross. Does that mean we must all die on a cross? Mark, it is just silly to hold to this view that submission must be identical to be mutual, and submission and subordination are fundamentally different. You have confused them.

Mark 2010-06-02

Dave,

I never said subordination was the same as submit. I deliberately did not look at subordination since i was trying to understand your view. I can do that if you like. In fact i will at the end here.

I agree submission is something we do. A wife is told to submit to her husband. She has to choose to do it, it cannot be demanded by the husband. God demands it, not the husband. But it is not mutual since the husband is not commanded to submit to his wife, as to the Lord. This is why ‘mutual’ is not effective to communicate what you believe.

Let me ask if i understand you correctly. The husband is in authority, but he still must submit (so the act is mutual not the authority in the relationship). If you accept the Webster’s definition of submit, what is the ‘power’ the submitter is submitting too? In the context of Eph 5:22 what is the ‘power’ of the husband that the wife is submitting too? You may reject the Oxford ‘superior’, but please explain the Webster’s.

I liked your nose wiping, ear washing analogy. Let’s expand it further…are they the same thing? As the dictionary defined mutual, it is done to others, what A does to B, B does to A. So if you wish to stick with the term ‘mutual’, you must by definition say it is identical. The way i submit to my pastor, is the exact same way he submits to me- that is mutual. Problem is, it won’t be the same. You are confusing the act of submitting (saying that is what is mutual) when what it appears you mean is that we all choose to submit. The choice of submitting is the same choice but it is not mutual. For it to be mutual, what A does to B, B does to A. There is a difference. That is why the term ‘mutual submission’ is nonsense.

I might be reading you wrong but you almost sound like a comp. You agree authority exists, yet the one in authority is to serve (though you use submit) the other. That is comp is it not. The issue appears that you continue to use the word ‘submit’ which the Oxford gives as superior, and the Webster ‘power’ which is why the confusion continues. Of course those egalitarians that reject authority in Eph 5 have other issues to face.

I’m really interested in how you explain the ‘power’ issue in Webster’s. It interests me so that we can see the relatioship between submit and subordination. If one is superior, or in power, is the submitter therefore not subordinate. You can be subordinate and still choose not to submit- kids do that all the time. Just becasue you choose TO submit, does not disregard the subordination.

Finally here is the definition for subordinate in Oxfords just for your reference…

“lower in rank or position…a person under the authority or control of another.”

Remember this is a secular dictionary. No comp driving there theology into this one! So to be subordinate is to be ‘under authority’ and to submit is to ‘yield to a superior force’. What’s the fundamental difference you wish to make Dave?

I must also admit that my nose is probably more out of proportion that my ears!!!

TL 2010-06-02

”Grudem asks egalitarians to show a use of hypotasso between people, when it does not involve authority. IN james 4, we are told to submit to God. To disprove Grudem’s challenge you would have to show how or why God is not in authority over us, which is exactly Grudem’s point. “

Mark,
I’m guessing that you are a well read Grudemite. Many of us here have read much if not all of his writings also. We just disagree with much of it.

I would classify Grudem as an authoritarian. An authoritarian translates all of life as about authority and submission. He favors the concepts of everyone being in subjection to authority or being the authority figures rather than any concept of individual freedoms. He also classifies wives (and children) as in complete subjection to the will of the husband. With that kind of a life view it would be difficult to perceive the goodness of authority lowering himself to serve the desires or needs of another. It’s all about authority after all. Authority doesn’t lower himself; authority makes decisions and takes action. I can still remember Grudem making a point about the “fact” that when HE decided to move because his wife was not faring well with the climate where they were living, that he was not submitting to his wife or her needs, he was taking action. It was his decision. She had nothing to do with it. Those are the lenses through which Grudem chooses to view and live life.

I submit to you that in the Scriptures we will find a different life view. The Messiah did not come to the world as an authoritarian figure. He came humbly and resisted all attempts at being viewed as an authority or power figure. His power was in how far He would go in arranging Himself under humanity in order to free humanity from the bondage of evil. Christ as God incarnate still had all power and authority as the creator of all life, but He did not exercise authority or His Will over us. He exercised His Holy Will over evil. But for us, His future Body, His primary motive was to serve us for our betterment. Everything Jesus did produced freedom, life, healing, deliverance, knowledge and optimum goodness for those who received Him. He taught us how to live by example.

But we all are brothers and sisters in His Body. We are not Christs. It is not easy to understand how to lower ourselves and walk in humility only seeking to serve the needs of others. But that is what Jesus admonished us to do. We are to walk in agape, the kind of agape that motivated Jesus to suffer death on the cross for our sakes.
Here are some ways that we are to submit to one another in the Lord…

Romans 12:10?Be devoted to one another in brotherly love. Honor one another above yourselves.

Romans 12:16?Live in harmony with one another. Do not be proud, but be willing to associate with people of low position. Do not be conceited.

Romans 14:13?Therefore let us stop passing judgment on one another. Instead, make up your mind not to put any stumbling block or obstacle in your brother’s way.

Romans 15:7?Accept one another, then, just as Christ accepted you, in order to bring praise to God.

Romans 16:16?Greet one another with a holy kiss. All the churches of Christ send greetings.

Galatians 5:13?You, my brothers, were called to be free. But do not use your freedom to indulge the sinful nature ; rather, serve one another in love.

Ephesians 4:2?Be completely humble and gentle; be patient, bearing with one another in love.

Ephesians 4:32?Be kind and compassionate to one another, forgiving each other, just as in Christ God forgave you.

Ephesians 5:19?Speak to one another with psalms, hymns and spiritual songs. Sing and make music in your heart to the Lord,

Colossians 3:13?Bear with each other and forgive whatever grievances you may have against one another. Forgive as the Lord forgave you.

1 Thessalonians 5:11?Therefore encourage one another and build each other up, just as in fact you are doing.

Hebrews 3:13?But encourage one another daily, as long as it is called Today, so that none of you may be hardened by sin’s deceitfulness.

Hebrews 10:24?And let us consider how we may spur one another on toward love and good deeds.

1 Peter 1:22?Now that you have purified yourselves by obeying the truth so that you have sincere love for your brothers, love one another deeply, from the heart.

1 Peter 3:8?[ Suffering for Doing Good ] Finally, all of you, live in harmony with one another; be sympathetic, love as brothers, be compassionate and humble.

1 Peter 4:9?Offer hospitality to one another without grumbling.

1 Peter 5:5?Young men, in the same way be submissive to those who are older. All of you, clothe yourselves with humility toward one another, because, “God opposes the proud but gives grace to the humble.”

1 John 1:7?But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin.

1 John 3:11?[ Love one another ] This is the message you heard from the beginning: We should love one another.

1 John 4:7?[ God’s Love and Ours ] Dear friends, let us love one another, for love comes from God. Everyone who loves has been born of God and knows God.?

Charis 2010-06-02

Dave (19) Mark and TL

Not going to quote all of you in the interest of time.

TL keeps saying hupotasso is voluntarily arranging under someone else. Mark has given us the definition from BAGD- “subordinate”. Dave strenuously objects to the idea of “subordinate”, can’t mean that, must mean “submissive”….

The Greek roots are hupo- under and tasso- arrange or order. Same for the Latin roots of the english word “subordinate” sub=under and ordinate=arrange.

Personally I dislike both “SUBORDINATE” and “SUBMIT”. I prefer “being subject” in Eph 5:21 and “are subject” in Eph 5:24. IMO, it better conveys the PASSIVE force of the verbs used.

Now, if we look at Eph 5:24 where God an Paul make a statement which IS NOT ADDRESSED TO WIVES but to the entire audience:

“but even as the assembly is subject to Christ, so also [are] the wives to their own husbands in everything. ” Eph 5:24 YLT

Dave said:

Note the difference between the two. One has to do with placing things in a natural order – something we might or might not have control over. The other has to do with where we choose to place ourselves – it is about the choice of being the last, not the first.

So, Dave and TL
you think the wife is being told in Ephesians 5:24 that she is supposed to
ALWAYS VOLUNTARILY CHOOSE TO BE LAST
ALWAYS VOLUNTARILY COME UNDER
????????????????????????????????

TBH, I lived that for 22 years of marriage and its horrid bondage
a very bad way of understanding what Paul/God is saying there A message that makes the wife pretty much disappear into the woodwork because “whatever he says, goes”. I mean Eph 5:24 says EVERYTHING and if she is responsible to voluntarily “be submissive” to him in EVERYTHING there might as well not be a her. God shouldn’t have made her at all. Clone Adam or stop with a dog or monkey.

Nope.

The verb is PASSIVE.

And I prefer the translation “SUBJECT” because it is a more accurate description of what the verse means. Paul is describing to the congregation that withing marriage a wife IS SUBJECT to her husband in a completely involuntary way IN EVERYTHING. Her husband’s decisions and behavior will have a massive impact and affect on her. Like a garden IS SUBJECT to the gardener. If the gardener withholds nourishing and cherishing, the garden will die. Or, as the passage indicates, like parts of a body ARE SUBJECT to one another. They are intimately connected and work together.

I just learned about homeostasis in the human body- how the body regulates. For example, if you are cold, you shiver and that helps warm you. I think the way of understanding Eph 5 which makes the wife responsible to voluntarily submit to her husband IN EVERYTHING ruins homeostasis of the marriage. No longer is she allowed to shiver when his decisions are making her cold, she must abort her natural response to the deprivation in order to let him be first. I submit that that understanding is actually the polar opposite of what Paul/God is describing. Paul/God is saying Wives ARE SUBJECT to their husbands in EVERYTHING. Its a DESCRIPTION not a PREscription. So husbands- if you take her out in the freezing cold with no coat, she’s gonna shiver! That’s homeostasis of the “one flesh” of marriage! And husbands, BTW, you are to LOVE, NOURISH, CHERISH {Greek thalpo=keep warm}

Charis 2010-06-02

TL,

Its distressing to me that you contradict facts.

“are subject” in Eph 5:21 is a verb
see
http://interlinearbible.org/ephesians/5.htm

so will the reader please disregard TL’s invalidating, dismissive comment and take my points at face value.

Thank you.

Kristen 2010-06-02

Charis, your construction is fine, I think, but reading it the way you’re reading it leads to a very legitimate question about the text. Paul is addressing the church, telling Christians how to function together. He tells them in the verses just before v. 21 not to get drunk but be filled with the Spirit (definitely passive voice, as we cannot fill ourselves with the Spirit), to sing to one another, to give thanks– and then to “be subject” to one another. These are clearly all actions that Christians are to take. Even though we cannot fill ourselves with the Spirit, we apparently have some role in allowing ourselves to be filled, or Paul would not so instruct us. So if being subject has nothing to do with any action on our part, why is it included as part of a set of instructions?
(Personally, I see the mitigating factor in the wife being submissive “in everything,” as the fact that the husband is supposed to be self-sacrificing for her and raising her up, as Christ sacrificed Himself to make the church “glorious.” She is supposed to be submitting to being made glorious, not to being trampled down– and if he doesn’t, she has a Christian duty to speak to him about his sin– and if he does not listen, to bring witnesses, etc. The bit in 1 Peter about winning him “without a word” does not apply because that’s addressed to wives married to unbelieving husbands.)
I think “be subject” must mean something along the lines of “allow yourselves to be subject,” just as “be filled with the Spirit” must mean “allow yourselves to be filled,” or the passage wouldn’t make sense.

Dave 2010-06-02

Mark, you said, “I agree submission is something we do. A wife is told to submit to her husband. She has to choose to do it, it cannot be demanded by the husband. God demands it, not the husband. But it is not mutual since the husband is not commanded to submit to his wife, as to the Lord. This is why ‘mutual’ is not effective to communicate what you believe.”

I am glad we both agree that submission is a choice. Your logic following though flies in the face of verse 21 where we (once again for the dummies!) submit to one another out of reverence for Christ.

With regards to Webster’s definition, the power is not necessarily in the relationship at all. It says “the power OR will of another”. i.e. there does not have to be power, though there might be. Therefore in Eph 5:22 the wife is not necessarily submitting to any ‘power’, though I think, as we have said before(!) culturally the husband had power. We know that. Peter also suggests that as the man is the stronger vessel he needs to use his strength appropriately when dealing with his wife the weaker vessel. This too could be the power. Surely the question you are yet to answer is whether or not the power is God ordained authority over the wife by the husband.

You said, “I liked your nose wiping, ear washing analogy. Let’s expand it further…are they the same thing? As the dictionary defined mutual, it is done to others, what A does to B, B does to A. So if you wish to stick with the term ‘mutual’, you must by definition say it is identical.”

Not sure if you have been listening Mark despite your clean ears! What is it that we are saying A does to B, and B does to A? Submitting. A submits and B submits. You never answered my questions, can we have mutual love? Will this look the same for a mother loving her child and a child loving her mother? Love is lived out in actions, just as submission is. If you don’t want to use the word “mutual”, then don’t, but it is not going to help you in regard to the fact that two people can submit to each other. Sue, I think it was, has given examples of hypotasso being used when authority is not at play.

You said, “I might be reading you wrong but you almost sound like a comp. You agree authority exists, yet the one in authority is to serve (though you use submit) the other. That is comp is it not.”

Yes, I have said right from my very first comment under Cheryl’s original post that authority exists. For the Ephesians their culture dictated that a husband had authority over his wife. The question all along is whether or not the authority is God given and therefore valid. Paul has told us all to submit, and goes to the trouble to make it explicit to husbands, parent and masters that they should all treat their wives/children/slaves by meeting their needs – dare I say submitting. He also goes to the trouble to say that wives/children/slaves should remember that they should still meet the needs of their husbands/parents/masters. The question (once again!) is does this mean that Paul is saying that men have a God given authority over their wives? Do masters have a God given authority over their slaves Mark?

You said, “One last point in relation to hypotasso. You need to remember that it is not an adjective or noun, so things like meekness and humility are not the best descriptions…we need to look at the verbal form.”

True, but the noun form can still be useful to display relevant meaning. You can be meek and humble you know!

Mark, no one is doubting that their was authority in the relationship between a husband and a wife in Ephesians. The question that needs to be answered is whether or not that authority is God given or culturally driven. That was poetic. No one is questioning whether or not a wife should submit to her husband, but rather whether or not Paul’s purpose is to make the husband the boss.

Mark 2010-06-02

Dave

You sound like a hoarder with your bikes…you are spending too much time on blogs and not on your bikes!

Let me try to be a bit clearer. Submission is a choice, i.e we choose to be humble and meek. But that is far different than saying I ‘submit’ to a 12 year old boy. I do not submit to a 12 year old boy because he is not in authority over me. I will serve him or be ‘submissive’ but not submit or ‘yield to his superior force’. This is the crux of the matter, distinguishing between an adjective and a verb, especially in light of the verbal use in Ephesians 5.

The difference between the husband/wife paradigm and the slave/master is that the former is directly related to the Christ/church analogy. So I believe Paul allowed for the cultural custom of slavery and told servants to submit, but in terms of the wife’s submission, to say it was only a ‘cultural’ thing and not a binding condition, would mean that the church/Christ analogy is only cultural at Ephesus. So if you wish to continue to draw a parellel between slavery and the marriage, you must explain how the two are connected culturally only. This is the fundamental difference- the wife is told to submit as the church is told to submit to Christ- it’s a lasting ordinance until the second coming. The whole slavery argument never works Dave, I would have thought you would know that, unless of course you wish to show me where the slave/master paradigm is linked with Church/Christ!

No I wouldn’t describe it as ‘mutual love’ because it’s not mutual. You can say the act of love is mutual but the love itself is not mutual, it is different. This is the same point I brought out about the term ‘mutual submission’, when what you really mean is ‘mutual submitting’ i.e. the verbal action. To submit requires to yield to a power or authority. How can it be mutual when one is over the other?

Dave 2010-06-02

Mark, you said, “You sound like a hoarder with your bikes…you are spending too much time on blogs and not on your bikes!”
I only have two bikes though. I once had three…though I think I might have had four at one stage. Or was it five, I forget. But you are right, I am spending too much time on blogs!

You said, “Let me try to be a bit clearer. Submission is a choice, i.e we choose to be humble and meek. But that is far different than saying I ‘submit’ to a 12 year old boy. I do not submit to a 12 year old boy because he is not in authority over me. I will serve him or be ‘submissive’ but not submit or ‘yield to his superior force’. This is the crux of the matter, distinguishing between an adjective and a verb, especially in light of the verbal use in Ephesians 5.”

So, you are saying you can be submissive, but that you can’t submit – that they are fundamentally different. I do not follow you. How is it different…dictionary definitions please!

Mark, you said, “So if you wish to continue to draw a parellel between slavery and the marriage, you must explain how the two are connected culturally only. This is the fundamental difference- the wife is told to submit as the church is told to submit to Christ- it’s a lasting ordinance until the second coming. The whole slavery argument never works Dave, I would have thought you would know that, unless of course you wish to show me where the slave/master paradigm is linked with Church/Christ!”

But the slave/master paradigm is linked with Christ and the church. Paul says, “And masters, treat your slaves in the same way. Do not threaten them, since you know that he who is both their Master and yours is in heaven, and there is no favouritism with him.”

Slaves are also told to serve their masters like they are slaves of Christ. Paul has linked both marriage and slavery to our relationship with Jesus AND in verse 21 he links our relationship with everyone in the body of Christ with Jesus when he asks us to submit to one another out of reverence for Christ.

Mark, you said, “No I wouldn’t describe it as ‘mutual love’ because it’s not mutual. You can say the act of love is mutual but the love itself is not mutual, it is different.”

I really must disagree! It is the love itself that is mutual. The act (how the loved is manifested in words/action/attitudes) might not be though. You have it around the wrong way IMHO. But like I say, don’t use the term mutual if you do not want. In fact Mark, I will submit to your assertion that it is the wrong word (though you are not in authority over me), and from now on I will call it “complementary submission”. I hope this is cool. I might call it “CS” for short. Or “Comp Sub”. Or “Sub Comp”. No, that doesn’t sound very good…

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-02

Well, I am going to add my thoughts into the mix, but since I am the blog owner, I did a new post on my view. http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2010/06/02/submission-and-origin-of-authority/

In the new post I challenge Mark and other complementarians to give us examples of how their authority is lived out over their wives in a one-way authority/submission relationship.

Kristen 2010-06-02

Mark said,
“Are you willing to say that the Christ/Church command is only cultural?”
No– I don’t agree with the “only cultural” idea– that we can ignore some portions of scripture because they’re only cultural. Instead, I believe that in every passage, we are to take into account the shared cultural assumptions of writer and audience, so that we can understand and obey the principle being conveyed, that the original audience would have understood.
So– the idea that the church is to Christ more like a wife is to a husband than a slave is to a master, is a beautiful, timeless teaching that I would never seek to circumvent. Nevertheless, the analogy cannot be taken too far. Look what happens if we apply the analogy strictly across the board in Ephesians 5:25-27:
Husbands, love your wives just as Christ loved the church, and gave Himself for it. Even so the husband ought to give himself for his wife. Ok so far, right? But going on: Christ gave Himself that He might sanctify and cleanse the church. Therefore husbands also ought to consider themselves like Christ, capable of sanctifying and cleansing their wives. (Yes, I have seen kind of thinking in some forms of complementarianism!) As Christ presented to Himself a glorious church, without spot or wrinkle, holy and blameless, so it is the husband’s job to present to himself a glorious wife, without spot or wrinkle, holy and blameless. The wife, then, isn’t really Christ’s, she’s her husband’s– and only Christ’s as she relates to him. Frankly– yuck– and I don’t believe for a moment that you would take the analogy this far.
Clearly the church/Christ comparison only goes so far, and to take it further is idolatry. The wife is to submit to the husband as the church does to Christ. Does this mean that the husband is to the wife as Christ is to the church in every way? Clearly not! The husband is not the savior, sanctifier, or redeemer of the wife. The husband is not her god. I’m sure we can agree on these things.
So– how far should we actually take the analogy? I suggest that we take it only as far as Paul took it: the husband is to love the wife and give himself up for her, nourish and cherish her, treat her as he treats his own body. The wife is to submit herself to her husband in everything, that she might be loved, lifted up, nourished and cherished. Not a hint is spoken of her being led or commanded, or of the husband getting the final say, here.
So– what part of Christ’s actions towards the church are shown in THIS passage for husbands to emulate? Does this passage talk about Christ leading the church? No. Does it talk about Him giving commands to the church? No. Does it talk about His authority over the church? No. It talks about His giving Himself up for the church. The readers would remember the abhorrent criminal’s death of the cross, in ways that we often miss through familiary. They would understand that Christ’s giving Himself up for the church was in every way an act of submission. He submitted like a lamb who opens not His mouth, to people who wanted to kill Him. He said He had the power to ask the Father for a legion of angels, but He refused to exercise that power. Instead He was like a lamb to the slaughter. He did this to bring the church up towards Himself, so that she could have pure fellowship with Him. For husbands in a culture where women were considered very little above animals, the idea was radical– go down to where your wife is stuck, and give yourself to raising her towards yourself.

Lydia 2010-06-03

“I wonder if you feel like the church leaders are also a layer between you and God? I’m not saying the husband is the ‘high priest’ so to speak of the wife, not at all. Just that he is the head of his wife and she should submit to him.

I don’t understand why you think an authority figure over you is a ‘layer’ spiritually between you and God. We all have authority over us, but that does not mean I am any less spiritual than that authority figure.”

Mark, you seem to be stuck on this authority thing.
From a spiritual perspective what does it mean to you? That those with churchy titles are always right and must be obeyed? Like Ted Haggard? Jimmy Swaggart? They both had authority titles.

There are some very evil people out there who abuse their perceived “Authority”. Are you allowing for the fact it is ok NOT to submit to them. If so, then why? If someone has enough discernment to know better then why the focus on authority?

Jesus Christ is the authority. we are to want all believers to grow and mature…grow in Holiness. That means they might just grow spiritually PAST the perceieved authority.

Instead of focusing on “authority” why don’t you do as Paul in 1 Corin 4 and describe yourself and men as servants…actually underrowers…the lowest level of rowers on a ship that were usually slaves. Why do you focus on what you perceive as authority? Which is really the lowliest servant of all?

Christianity is about humility and putting others first. Not about having authority over other believers. Elders are to be the most humble of all. They are certainly not like Diotrephes who obviously demanded to be followed and obeyed.

Why not give us an example of how YOU think a wife must submit. Where is the line drawn that she should NOT obey her perceived authority. Is the wife allowed to teach the husband anything the Holy Spirit has illuminated to her in scripture or is that wrong? If he disagrees what must she do? Suppress it?

The problem I see is that comps take metaphors too far. For example, pastor is shepherd. So that means we must stay dumb sheep who always follow the pastor who is only a human. Thjat is taking a metaphor too far. You take a metaphor about love in 1 Eph 5 and now women must ACT like a church. And you must be Jesus? Her Savior?

gengwall 2010-06-03

Mark – “So in James 4 we are told to ‘align with’ (not submit under or to) God in the sense that he does not have authority over us…correct?…”

No – in the sense that the text is not talking about God’s authority over us. Why should we introduce it into the text? There are scads of texts in the Bible, especially in the OT, where God is seen as a side by side partner with us, especially in contexts where we resisting some enemy. This is especially true when we are resisting the Devil. What does God’s authority over us have to do with reisiting the Devil? Nothing. Scripture informs us: “if God is with me, who can stand against me”. The way we get God “on our side” is to align with Him.

Mark – “I guess the next argument will be, that Eph 5:21 uses the ‘align with’ and then Paul switches with Christ to ‘submit under’- I can see where this is leading. Paul just loves to be confusing like this doesn’t he!”

That would be your argument, not mine. My point was that “align with” makes much more sense for 5:21 than “align under”, and Paul would be consistent in 5:22. And yes, I believe the church aligns with Christ, although it certainly aligns under Him as well in some contexts. The question we need to ask is if “marriage” is such a context. I don’t believe it is.

Mark – “My response: yeah maybe, if we want to put our selves on a level par with the creator of the world, the creator of us, the sustainer of all things, and say that we are not under His authority. Sure I can accept this novel interpretation, if I thought I was God.”

My friend – you seem to be like other comps here who think that Christ and God have only one relational paradigm with humans, and that one paradigm is the authoritarian one. That simply isn’t the case. Stop putting words in our mouths by saying that we are contending that God “never” has authority over us. That isn’t what we are saying at all. What we are saying is that in the marrital paradigm, authority is not even in view. It is a reciprocal, equal, unified, “one flesh” relationship.

“…This is all becoming hysterical! How far must we go to re-invent Biblical teaching.”

I might give the retort – “How far must we go to reinvent Greek to support our biblical teaching”.

Susanna Krizo 2010-06-03

Mark, let me begin by saying that I understand where you come from. I was a comp for 16 years and I argued exactly the same way as you do, and I had even more of a take-no-prisoners attitude about it. But as I began to challenge my beliefs, I could no longer sustain them. For example, where does the Bible EVER explain how the church is to submit to Christ? It doesn’t. Comps simply assume that it is found in Eph 1 where Christ is portrayed as the having his enemies under his feet. Surely you agree that the church is not an enemy and that we are seated with Christ in the heavenly places and that he is the head of the body, the church? The only place where the NT mentions hypotasso in the context of the church/God is Jas 4.

“Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that friendship with the world is enmity with God? Whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God. Do ye think that the Scripture saith in vain, “The spirit that dwelleth in us lusteth to envy”? But He giveth more grace; therefore He saith, “God resisteth the proud, but giveth grace unto the humble.” Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you. Draw nigh to God, and He will draw nigh to you. Cleanse your hands, ye sinners, and purify your hearts, ye doubleminded.”

In this passage, as in Rom 8 where the law of God is concerned, the contrast is made between enmity and friendship. The believers had become the enemies of God when they were friends with the world through pride. James wishes them to submit to God, i.e. become HIS FRIENDS (as Abraham was called, and Jesus called his disciples) instead of remaining his enemies. How is this done? By drawing near to God and resisting the Devil. Is it God’s authority the believers are told to recognize? No. It is his love, for he is said to give grace to the humble, and grace is given only through love; mercy is given through justice (i.e. mercy triumphs over justice, but ” the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men.” (Titus 2.11)) So, you see, it is God’s love that is the context in Jas 4 as is the love of Christ in Eph 5. Paul wishes the married couples to walk in love as Christ loved us (which is true of all Chrisitians, Eph 5:1-2) by dying for us when we did not deserve it. This is the greatest love of all (Rom 5: some would die for a friend, but God died for his enemies, for while we were still sinners, we were enemies of God). You do not need authority to die out of love, all you need is – love.

Kristen 2010-06-03

Getting back to the issue of whether authority of husbands is a God-given mandate in Ephesians 5:
Understanding the underlying cultural assumptions can be very important in helping us see what’s missing in this passage, which the original audience could not have helped noticing, but which we tend to overlook.
Here’s a quote from Michael Kruse in The Kruse Kronicle, about the ancient world’s household codes:
http://krusekronicle.typepad.com/kruse_kronicle/2007/07/household-the-h.html
“The ancient Greeks saw the household as the primary institution through which order was kept in society. To promote effective household management Greek sages would offer their advice to the paterfamilias on household management. These discourses came to be known as the “household codes” or “household tables” (and sometimes the German haustafel.) Aristotle’s household instructions (fourth century B.C.E.) in Book I of Politics are among the most commonly referenced of the household codes. Included in the codes are usually instructions about how the paterfamilias should manage his wife, his children and his slaves. There is often wisdom given about how to manage wealth. Most codes articulate the importance of the paterfamilias dutifully fulfilling his role for the good of society. Some sages advocated an authoritarian approach and others a more benevolent demeanor but whatever their take was on style, they were unified in their conviction that the paterfamilias was obligated to rule his household for the good of society.”
When I quoted from 1 Peter 5:1-5 earlier, I couldn’t help noticing the specific instructions he gave to elders about leading the church: “Be shepherds of God’s flock, serving as overseers. . . not lording it over those entrusted to you, but being examples. . .”
How easy would it have been for Peter and Paul, both of whom set out lists of household instructions as Kruse describes, to have said something similar for husbands that Peter says to church elders? “Husbands,” he could have said, “guide and lead your wives as those under your care, not lording it over them, but being examples.” The original readers, accustomed to ancient Roman and Greek household codes, would have found the complete absense of any such instruction to be absolutely glaring. And yet we, coming from a society where husbands are not considered patriarchs of their clans, miss this– and we see the opposite of what they saw, which was a omission of any instruction to husbands to take authority, replaced instead by a command to love and act like Christ did in His submissive death!

Elastigirl 2010-06-03

Greg.

Your comment caught my attention.

As far as doing everything “by the book” — sometimes I think christians feel that to be fully living their life for God, as much as is possible, requires embracing every word in their own Bibles (certainly the New Testament) as binding on their lives. For example, churches conduct baby dedications simply because that’s what Mary and Joseph did with Jesus. Does this make it necessary for us? Part of what it means to be a christian? I really don’t think so.

The intense pursuit of God can become the obsessive pursuit of words. Words in “the book” and phrases are parsed to oblivion to the point of losing the point of the message or idea as a whole. Kind of like arguing with someone for so long you can’t even remember what the issue was in the first place. Certainly this is done with many aspects of the complementarian and egalitarian viewpoints.

While is is good to be able to argue one’s point of view if it is being challenged, I can’t help but feel this is all much ado about nothing. We’ve twisted our brains tighter and tighter, impossibly convoluting what is so incredibly obvious and plain: human relationships are most successful when we treat each other the way we want to be treated. Every definition of love and God’s love boils down to this.

I tend to think that we’d all do a much better job of serving the common good on a macro and micro level if we relaxed somewhat and just kept this golden rule principle in the forefront of our minds. We’d certainly have more time and energy for it.

Kristen 2010-06-03

Elastagirl and Greg (#87 & 88) — I am in agreement with you, too. Sometimes endless wrangling over what the Bible says and doesn’t say eclipses simply following Jesus and His command to “love one another, as I have loved you” and “do unto others as you would have them do unto you.” The problem, of course, is that when someone finds justification in the Bible to assert the God-given authority of one group over another, and that authority can and has been used to harm a whole group of people, then because the Bible is held to be the sole authority on faith and practice, such claims really must be refuted from the Bible. But I think a really good test of an interpretation is, “Does following this interpretation uphold the command to do unto others as we would have them do unto us? Or does this interpretation bind up a heavy burden to tie upon someone’s back?”
I would really much rather it be the case that this conversation about whether women are born to be under male authority, was unnecessary, because everyone recognized that it was against the law of “do unto others.” If you wouldn’t want someone asserting that they have a God-given right to authority over you, regardless of their calling, character or competence, but simply by the privilege of their birth and the lack of privilege of yours– then do not so assert to someone else!
But unfortunately the conversation is necessary, because as long as some sectors of Christianity assert male privilege, then I must reply to the contrary. It might be different if they’d just keep it to themselves and practice it at home with their own wives (I wouldn’t mind– if it works for them for him to lead and her to follow, and they both feel happy, loved and respected, I have no quarrel), but they must needs tell me how to run my marriage too (or rather, how my husband must run our marriage, since he’s supposed to be the leader– but he wants an equal partner with equal say, and I’m happy to submit!)

Susanna Krizo 2010-06-03

Dave, I merely wanted to see if you had an insight into an arrangement that I did not. I.e. it cannot be tyranny (one always making the decisions), therefore it must be democracy (making decisions together as a team).

Mark, you wrote: “To me, you must either reject that marriage is a reflection of the ‘true’ marriage, or reject that Christ has authority over his church to accept an egal system on Eph 5. I’m not willing to do either since i believe both options are unbiblical.”

I dare you to read Eph 5 without reading authority into the text. I dare you to read the whole entire Bible without reading authority into the text when it is not explicitly mentioned. Will you accept my dare, or will you go on thinking you got it right? Don’t forget that God does not share his “Godlikeness” with humans, i.e. what God has and is because he is God, is not for humans to take. Either you agree that God has attributes that only he can have, or you make the make the man also divine in that he, but not the woman, can have God-like attributes. But consider also this: does the church not have authority? Did Christ not share his authority with the church? Are we not called the co-workers of God? Are we not able to perform the same as did Christ on earth? Why do you only make the man to be like “Christ” when it was the mission of Christ to make all of us like himself? Paul wrote that all of us ought to imitate Christ. How does it differ when it comes to women? You see the relationship between Christ and the church only in terms of authority-obedience, which is based on the false translations of hypotasso and kephale.

As a last note let me leave you with this:
Two cannot have authority over each other at the same time, but they can both oppose each other.
Two cannot obey each other at the same time, but they can draw near to each other.
If the first mentioned does not fit Eph 5.21 because it is impossible, perhaps the latter does, since it is possible. Incidentally, I did a search through the early church writings today and I found that the latter was precisely what they wrote: We should not oppose each other, or God, but to draw near and remain near. This is the biblical definition of Eph 5.21.

Kristen 2010-06-03

Mark,
You said, “So if the original marriage was a foreshadow of Christ/Church, adn authority exists in the church/Christ relatioship, why ought we deny the human relationship is different.” By which I must assume you mean, “why ought we deny the human relationship is NO different,” because that it IS different, is what I am asserting.

To which I can only reply as I did before. Worship exists in the church/Christ relationship. Why ought we deny the human relationship is no different?
Eternal salvation exists in the church/Christ relationship. Why ought we deny the human relationship is no different?
Resurrection exists in the church/Christ relationship. Why ought we deny the human relationship is no different?

Which means that if we say a husband is to his wife, everything Christ is to the church, then we have the husband as his wife’s god, worthy of receiving her worship, able to save her and resurrect her from the dead.
This has to be as unacceptable to you as it is to me.
Therefore, we have to limit the analogy. The husband/wife relationship cannot have everything the church/Christ relationship has. The only question, then, is how we limit it.

Do we limit it according to our own preconceived notions? If authority has traditionally been assumed between husband and wife, therefore we can extrapolate that this is part of what Paul was talking about? How about the ability of Christ to discipline His church? If He can tell the church at Ephesus in Rev. 2:5 that unless she repents, He will come and take her lampstand from its place (note that in Rev. 1:20 the “lampstand” is identified as the church itself– so Christ is warning the church that she will cease to exist as one of His churches)– can the husband tell his wife how she has displeased him and how he is going to discipline her if she doesn’t repent? Can he tell her he will remove her as his wife unless she does his will?

I hope you will say no. I have seen complementarians who believe husbands have the power to discipline their wives– but there is nothing, anywhere in Scripture, that gives a husband such power. Between Christ and the church, though, such power certainly exists.

So– how far DO we take the church/Christ analogy? I for one absolutely refuse to worship my husband, look to him for salvation, or in any other way treat him as if he were Christ– not for one minute will I commit such a grievous sin!

I suggest we limit the church/Christ analogy to only those things that Paul mentions in the verses where he makes the analogy itself. The husband is said to be “head” in a head-body metaphor with the wife as Christ is in a head-body relationship with the church– and Christ as “head,” according to Eph. 4:15 and Col. 2:9, means the source of nourishment and life– it is a provisionary function. But the passage goes on to speak of Christ as Savior– and the comparison to the husband is not extended into this function. The husband is then told to “love” the wife as Christ loved the church when He “gave Himself” for her. Then it goes on to say that Christ sanctifies and cleanses and washes the church, and presents her to Himself– again, the comparison to the husband does not extend here. Then it says the husband should “nourish and cherish” the wife as his own body, just as the Lord does the church. But NOT ONCE does it say the husband should lead his wife as Christ leads the church, or that the husband should command his wife as Christ commands the church. Salvation and cleansing are at least mentioned– but only as being Christ’s job, not the husband’s. Authority isn’t mentioned in this passage at all.
When the Scriptures make a comparison like church/Christ to wife/husband, we must be careful, or we’ll end up idolaters. We must be careful to add nothing to what the passage actually says– not even authority.

Mark 2010-06-06

Hi everyone,

I fail to see the tough questions posed Cheryl. I have only extended the analogy as far as the Bible does. No, a wife should not worship her husband. What everyone failed to mention (especially Kristen in her thread) was that wives are told to submit as the Church does to Christ. So does submit give any indication that auhtority exists. As far as i know, all lexicons say yes. Is it foreign to Paul’s train of thought, no it is not. So i have only ever extended the analogy as far as Paul and the grammar definitions. Some of you egalitarians do a good job at trying to discredit those who disagree agree with you. But as far as i can tell, two themes are common, 1) i don’t answer supposed tough questions (although they never seem to directly relate to the topic) and 2) you introduce and extend what i have said to things i have never said.

So although you want to discredit my position by introducing all these other extremities that i have not mentioned, let me be clear. I’m focusing only on what the wife is told to do, in the same way the church is told to do in Eph 5. If you wish to continue discussing this with me that is fine, but stick to the topic. Don’t attach foreign labels and concepts.

Susannah,

I can’t understand your hermeneutic. You only accept authority if it is the ‘big’ idea of the passage it seems. I find this biblical interpretation hard to follow because i’m sure you don’t say ‘anger’ is the big idea of Ephesians 6, yet i’m sure you would agree with Paul that Father’s should not provoke their children to anger. You can’t re-interpret every word in a passage like that. So i dare you, to actually accept the Biblical words for what they mean, and not do exegetical backflips to dismiss authority.

P.S Cheryl have you responded to my comment about Ryan’s alternative? I would like to know how many think Eph 5 is ‘cultural’ (in that the husband had authority in that culture but it was not God ordained) and how many don’t? I know Dave thinks it’s cultural, and Kristen not. ANyone else wish to add!

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-07

Mark,
You asked regarding Ryan’s comments:

In what way is the husband the source of his wife? What does that mean from the context? Then in what way does that parallel the Church and Christ?

The husband is the original source of the woman and thus she is from him and equal to him. The husband today is to see his wife as being from him as his very own body so that he is to care for her as if she is his own flesh. In the same way the Church is the body of Christ and is from Him as the start or origin of the Church.

No, a wife should not worship her husband. What everyone failed to mention (especially Kristen in her thread) was that wives are told to submit as the Church does to Christ.

We are to submit to serve Christ and to receive His service to us in love. The attitude is to be one of love and respect, not of constraint.

So does submit give any indication that auhtority exists. As far as i know, all lexicons say yes.

Yes authority does exist and submission is at times to an authority but you have already been shown by Suzanne here and myself at http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2010/06/02/submission-and-origin-of-authority/ that authority is not something that is to be assumed as submission can exist between equals and the fact that Paul said that the submission that is required of us is reciprocal, shows that it is not about submitting to an authority.

Some of you egalitarians do a good job at trying to discredit those who disagree agree with you.

I don’t know what “disagree agree” means but I am assuming that is a typo. I also think that you should rethink your sentence. Egalitarians certainly do a good job at discrediting the argument not the people. Those who are in disagreement with us are brothers in Christ – no ones to discredit. I don’t see anyone here calling you a heretic or airing your dirty laundry or any other tactic of personal discrediting. Do you see the difference?

But as far as i can tell, two themes are common, 1) i don’t answer supposed tough questions (although they never seem to directly relate to the topic) and 2) you introduce and extend what i have said to things i have never said.

Are you saying that whenever there is a tough question that you can’t answer you are going to claim that the question doesn’t relate to the topic so you don’t need to answer? I think that it is good to answer the tough questions anyway as they are important to us. If you feel they are beyond the topic, tell us why. As far as extending what has not been said, there are logical outgrowths of a position and it is fair to discuss these things. If you do not believe that they are logical outgrowths you can tell us why we should not see it this way. It is not an attack on your person, but a part of discussion.

So although you want to discredit my position by introducing all these other extremities that i have not mentioned, let me be clear. I’m focusing only on what the wife is told to do, in the same way the church is told to do in Eph 5.

The wife is told to have a reciprocal submission with the husband. Since the verb is in verse 21 and it is reciprocal, there is no way to get around that. How can you take submission from verse 21 but leave out the specific grammar that is attached to submission that renders it specifically two-way? If you can explain how you have detached the reciprocal grammar from the verb, it would be helpful to understand your argument.

If you wish to continue discussing this with me that is fine, but stick to the topic. Don’t attach foreign labels and concepts.

I think that everyone has been doing quite fine. Perhaps you can explain what “foreign labels” and “foreign concepts” you believe to be off topic?

You said to Susanna:

You only accept authority if it is the ‘big’ idea of the passage it seems.

I think it would be helpful for you to deal with the grammar that makes submission as reciprocal. Reciprocal submission would leave authority out of the picture, wouldn’t you think?

You also said to Susanna:

So i dare you, to actually accept the Biblical words for what they mean, and not do exegetical backflips to dismiss authority.

Actually Mark, I would like to put this one back on you. How about we dare you to show how reciprocal submission can mean that authority is in mind? How does both have authority over each other? I would really like you to answer this. It is not a side issue but a very important piece of grammar that should not be ignored.

I would like to know how many think Eph 5 is ‘cultural’ (in that the husband had authority in that culture but it was not God ordained) and how many don’t?

I think that all of us can agree that the husband had authority in that culture and that many cultures still hold to the husband having full authority over his wife. The question is always whether God ordained such an authority or whether it comes from sinful man wanting to dominate and control the physically weaker one? The question has been asked many times to show us where God has ordained the husband to have authority over his wife. You have as of yet given no Scripture where such an authority was transferred from God. If you have no Scripture that has a God-ordained authority transferred to the husband, then why should we believe that the mutual submission of Ephesians 5:21 is not mutual in the marriage when the only verb that verse 22 can attach to is found in verse 21 and that verb is absolutely and without a doubt reciprocal? Can you explain this?

Mark 2010-06-07

Cheryl,

Before i answer any more of your questions, can you please answer the one’s i asked of you first in relation to Ryan’s comments. You answered only one of my questions. Can you do the rest?

you said

“The husband is the original source of the woman and thus she is from him and equal to him. The husband today is to see his wife as being from him as his very own body so that he is to care for her as if she is his own flesh.”

Where does Paul even mention Adam and Eve in this context? Why are you importing this idea? Also when the Bible saids “the husband is the head of his wife” you interpret…

“The husband today is to see his wife as being from him as his very own body so that he is to care for her as if she is his own flesh.”

So my wife comes from my body? Are you serious on this one? Or is this some hypothetical idea? How can people think this is a serious alternative to comp theology. Surely you can do better than this?

Actually i will address one issue of yours. You seem to think that Eph 6 is a slam dunk for the egalitarian position. Now this purplexes me, since the verb ‘submit’ is not even in the text. The slave is told to ‘obey’ so why is it you think it confirms the egalitarian assumption on the verb submit? You stated that the masters are to be reciprocal aswell. Are you saying that the masters are to ‘obey’ the slaves? Here is again another example of a tangent in the egaitarian theology. We are discussing EPh 5, but more specifically the verb ‘submit’ and you tell me Eph 6 proves your point. How can this be, when the verb is not even the same?

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-07

Mark,
You said:

Actually i will address one issue of yours. You seem to think that Eph 6 is a slam dunk for the egalitarian position. Now this purplexes me, since the verb ’submit’ is not even in the text. The slave is told to ‘obey’ so why is it you think it confirms the egalitarian assumption on the verb submit?

Ephesians 6 lists how one of the pairs from chapter 5 submits. The slave obeys with sincereity of heart. Obedience is the submission and then God tells the masters to do the same.

Are you saying that the masters are to ‘obey’ the slaves?

They are to “render service” Eph 6:7, 8 and the term “obey” in verse 5 means to be “subject to”. Therefore the masters are also to be “subject to” or be in submission to the slaves. BADG lexicon regarding the word for obey:

  1. to follow instructions, obey, follow, be subject to
    Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature

You said:

Here is again another example of a tangent in the egaitarian theology. We are discussing EPh 5, but more specifically the verb ’submit’ and you tell me Eph 6 proves your point. How can this be, when the verb is not even the same?

Paul uses a synonym and he carries on the description of submission from chapter 5. It is absolutely the same subjection. The fact that Paul uses another word that means the same thing just reinforces the mutual subjection. Are you seriously trying to tell me that the command for masters to do the same thing is not subjection to their slaves?

Mark 2010-06-07

Cheryl,

Thanks for the interaction. Let me put it this way. I won’t base my understanding of hypotasso, from a verb that is not the same. I will base my understanding from the lexicons, context and the rest of the Bible. You may wish to swap and fiddle with the verbs to come to the conclusion that you do, but i am not.

Yes i am saying that masters were NOT subject to their slaves. I am confident in this, becasue the Bible never saids that masters are hypotasso to their slaves. If this was the case they would no longer be masters. I think what you need to do is look beyond the verb ‘obey’ and look at all the other things Paul describes for the slaves. Then also look at what Paul qualifies for the masters after ‘do the same thing’, for example ‘stop threatening’. You can’t just take ‘obey’ and ‘do the same thing’ and ignore the rest of the text as if it doesn’t mean anything or rather gives meaning to the exhortation. I thought i had heard it all from you Cheryl, until you come up with this one.

Why will i waste my time explaining how my marriage works on this blog. It is quite clear that we are never going to agree since our ‘foundations’ are completely different. Practical implications flow from theology, if the theology is different, the practical issues will be different. I don’t expect anything i say about my marriage will help facilitate our biblical interpretation of Eph 5.

It seems like in an egalitarian context the book of Ephesians could stop at 5:21, since the husband/wife, Christ/church, slave/master, child/parent relationships all say the same thing right- in a nutshell ‘mutual submission’. It makes me wonder why Paul would go to all that effort to give these exhortations, if he said it all in 5:21. Wow, my relationship with my wife is no different to the slave and his master- that’s encouraging! (sorry for the sarcasm)

Finally, if my wife IS the body with me, how can she come from my body? How can i be the source of her? Puzzling questions! Also again, why are you interpolating Adam and Eve into Eph 5 when Paul does not. Why are you basing your meaning of ‘head’ from something not even in the context? More puzzling questions. I think the reality is, i am not the source of my wife’s body- her parents are (physically). There is no direct correlation between the first pair and me and my wife physically like that.
This is why it appears that ‘head’ has some new age hypothetical mumbo jumbo meaning that makes no actual sense of the word or the context in which it lies. Or maybe i am the source ‘spiritually’ like Christ is for the Church. Can we draw the conclusion that i am the one responsible for the salvation of my wife, like Christ is for the Church? Let’s face it- stick with the proper meaning of the word(s) and uphold biblical teaching.

TL 2010-06-07

”Let me say it again- all lexicons i have read say that the verb ‘submit’ has authority attached to it. ……… That verb according to lexicons denotes authority.”

Mark,
There is a difference between having one part of the range of definitions include involving authority and denoting authority. In the range of meanings in English and in Greek, the word submit CAN include authority. But it is not required.

We can see quite clearly that you are ignoring the full range of the meaning of the word because your desire is so strong for it to mean only authority. But reality is that the word submit does not only relate to situations involving authority.

”Why is the wife’s submission directly linked to the Church’s submission?”

First it is not directly linked, but given as an example. Wives are being admonished to submit to the husbands in the same manner believers submit to the Messiah who died that we might have life. They are to submit with reverence for God. As believers we are responding to Christ’s sacrificial love toward us, and in a marriage husbands are to emulate Christ’s sacrificial love toward their wives and wives are to respond to that with the same trust and acceptance that we respond to Christ. We need to find the meaning in the context of what the author is writing about.

21Submit to one another out of reverence for Christ.
22Wives, to your husbands as to the Lord.

Here is another way to look at this. If we read these two sentences under one another we can see that Paul is basically repeating himself. First we all submit to one another out of reverence to Christ. Then without stopping his thought, Paul continues that wives also to their husbands, still keeping reverence for Christ.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-07

Mark,
You said:

Thanks for the interaction.

You are welcome! And I must say that you are one brave man to post your views on this blog! Most complementarians do not have answers to our questions and so the only thing that they can do is to insult egals and deny that they are following Christ. At least you try to stay away from that although your earlier comment about me being like the Pharisee who thanked God that he wasn’t like the sinner was way over the top and thoroughly unkind. Other than that you have been quite civil and it is much appreciated!

I won’t base my understanding of hypotasso, from a verb that is not the same.

That is most unfortunate. It is pretty much saying that you won’t base your understanding of the word by considering the context of the passage. However we should understand that there are ranges of meanings for a word and the context will be the final determinate in the understanding of the particular meaning of a word. Without considering the context, it appears that you have chosen in advance what you want the verb to mean and you are looking only for things that might support your preconceived notion. That really isn’t wise. It is understandable for one who holds to male privilege, but it isn’t the way to fear God by submitting your preconceived ideas to His test.

I will base my understanding from the lexicons, context and the rest of the Bible.

If you are willing to base your understanding on the lexicons, and you have been willing to admit that the submission is voluntary not forced, then you should be able to see that a voluntary submission in the lexicons does not list voluntary submission “to an authority”. Submission can be given “out of love” without a compulsion or a threat or a fear of an authority that belongs to man.

You may wish to swap and fiddle with the verbs to come to the conclusion that you do, but i am not.

The verbs in the context are all to be considered as part of the context. I have no need to “swap” and “fiddle” when the Bible clearly lists mutual acts that are given by both the slave and the master. This act of mutuality is a repeat of Ephesians 5:21 where the verb that we are discussing is reciprocal. The reciprocal is picked up in Ephesians 6:9 where Paul says, “And master, do the same things to them…” Note that this is plural and the things are the same between what the slaves did and what the masters are to do.

To be continued….

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-07

Notice above that the word for “be obedient” means to “be subject to”, “follow”, “listen to”, “submit to”, “yield to”.

Slaves are to submit to their masters and to do this willingly in sincerity of heart “as to Christ”.

Are masters also to do all of this in sincerity of heart “as to Christ”? Yes, they are also to submit to the needs of the servant and listen to them. These Christian masters are to do all of this in the fear of the Lord. For just as the slaves are to render service to their masters:

Ephesians 6:7 (NASB)
7 With good will render service, as to the Lord, and not to men,

…so too are the masters to render service to the slaves:

Ephesians 6:9 (NASB)
9 And masters, do the same things to them, and give up threatening, knowing that both their Master and yours is in heaven, and there is no partiality with Him.

One other thing that is added on the part of masters is to give up threatening. Although with mutual submission, this would also be applicable to slaves, slaves would not be the ones who would have the power to threaten. It is the masters who had the power to threaten with punishment. They were to stop this.

Notice also that along with doing the same things (plural) to the slaves, they were to consider that the slaves were equal with them in the Lord as they both has the same master and the Lord is not partial to masters over slaves.

You can’t just take ‘obey’ and ‘do the same thing’ and ignore the rest of the text as if it doesn’t mean anything or rather gives meaning to the exhortation.

I didn’t say that the rest of the text didn’t mean anything. I was pointing out the mutual submission that is evident in the English and in the Greek. Whatever the rest of the text includes, it cannot exclude “submission” and “do the same thing”. These words are there for a purpose and they make common sense of Ephesians 5:21 where the grammar is reciprocal. When the command is for all of us to submit to each other and then Paul goes on to show how that is to be operative even in the lives of slaves and masters with masters doing the same things to the slaves as unto the Lord, we have a full description of mutual submission “one to another”.

Why will i waste my time explaining how my marriage works on this blog.

You don’t need to give us an example from your own marriage, but surely you can give a hypothetical example that you would consider a classic example of an authority taken by the husband with submission by the wife where the husband is not required to do for the wife what she is required to do for him. Without an example how is it that we can fully understand what you are saying? Since you don’t agree with my examples of mutual submission, perhaps you can give us a good one or two examples of unilateral submission. Or perhaps you just aren’t able to give such an example. If that is the case just say so. Then our case will stand and we win 😉

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-07

Mark,
You said:

It is quite clear that we are never going to agree since our ‘foundations’ are completely different.

It is certainly clear for me that you are never going to give up your male privilege. But even so it is a good thing for at least there to be understanding of the position. You are the one who consistently says that egals add to or misrepresent the comp position. Now is your chance to clear the air and tell us exactly how the comp view of authority and submission can work out in a definite “men would never be called to do that” example.

Practical implications flow from theology, if the theology is different, the practical issues will be different.

So, let’s see your different practical issue that flows from your theology. Let’s see the comp view in action. That can’t be too hard, can it?

I don’t expect anything i say about my marriage will help facilitate our biblical interpretation of Eph 5.

What an example will do (whether it is from your own marriage or not) will show how the interpretation of Eph 5 works it way out in real life that is consistent with the passage and with the rest of the Bible.

It seems like in an egalitarian context the book of Ephesians could stop at 5:21, since the husband/wife, Christ/church, slave/master, child/parent relationships all say the same thing right- in a nutshell ‘mutual submission’.

Paul gives specific wisdom for each different set of relationships. Each has a unique set of problems that would challenge each one from mutually meeting each other’s needs.

It makes me wonder why Paul would go to all that effort to give these exhortations, if he said it all in 5:21. Wow, my relationship with my wife is no different to the slave and his master- that’s encouraging! (sorry for the sarcasm)

Funny how you put words into our mouths and then make fun of your own words. The fact is that each relationship has its challenges but each relationship is to submit to each other as to Christ. It is our love for Him and our fear of the Lord that encourages us to do what is right even when we feel like we are the privileged one. We are to realize that the Lord Jesus is Master of all and there is no partiality with Him that would make the master as more privileged than the servant or the husband more privileged than the wife or a parent more privileged than a young child believer. No partiality with God means that all are to submit to the needs of the other.

Finally, if my wife IS the body with me, how can she come from my body? How can i be the source of her? Puzzling questions!

She grows from you as her head. You have been set up first so that you take responsibility to care and nurture her and and selflessly meet her needs. That all flows from the head to the body as the head is the source.

I think the reality is, i am not the source of my wife’s body- her parents are (physically).

While only the first man was the physical source of his wife, all mean are to be the source of care. Surely you feel some responsibility to look after your wife and care for her needs. If you feel this responsibility, then you are acting out the head as source application.

Or maybe i am the source ‘spiritually’ like Christ is for the Church.

Only Christ can supply her spiritual needs. He is the only spiritual source. The husband supplies her physical needs. He is the physical source.

Can we draw the conclusion that i am the one responsible for the salvation of my wife, like Christ is for the Church?

One could certainly come to that conclusion if one is a comp. For if the man can take Christ’s authority, then why not take his place as Savior? If the man is to be just like Christ as the comps teach, then where is the line drawing the boundary? I believe that the boundary line is what is in the natural and everything that is a part of God’s duty toward us has nothing to do with the male. Christ’s authority is His right as God.

Now we will wait to see how Mark will bring out the examples of authority/submission with no male taking on any act of submission toward his wife. It will be a huge learning experience to see into the mind of a comp who believes he has a male privilege that God gave him. I will be waiting with baited breath for you to answer Mark. Go ahead. Your turn.

Mark 2010-06-07

Pinklight,

You missed the point. The egalitarian ‘source’ meaning relies heavily on the ‘physical’ aspect as Cheryl has just confirmed. Is this Paul’s interest in Eph 5. Does he talk about about Adam providing for Eve- NO! The only thing that goes back to Gen is the one flesh union- the marriage- not the supposed provisional priority of the male. Here is the fallicy of Cheryl’s son’s whole argument. Not to mention his claims that we are equal with Christ in the sense that we are sinless and whatever else it was that he said. Both ideas are completely foreign to the text and Paul’s meaning.

Now carry this further- Paul contrast this to the Church and Christ. Now in what way does Christ provide physically for us. Does he go and earn money and supply our physical needs in the same way a husband is supposed to under the egalitarian position. Straight away the comparison Paul makes becomes meaningless. That is why egals have to talk about Christ provision being different to the husbands provision- thus we no longer have a comparison. It just seems totally silly, at least Sue realises this and abstains from pushing ‘source’ for the meaning of head.

So why is the comp position so much more consistent- it doesn’t swap and fiddle and sqirm and make nonsense out of the passage. A wife is to submit to her husband who is the head because he has auhtority over her, in the same way the church submits to Christ as the head who has authority over the Church.

Finally you said
“It’s obvious from Ephesians 5 that the woman’s creation out of the man foreshadowed the church being made out of Christ.”

Sure let’s assume this is correct. How then does this apply to the husband in Ephesus who is the source of his wife? In what way is the Ephesian coming out of her husband? This is the problem, the comparison is between the husband and wife in Ephesus and the Church and Christ, from which Paul draws on the one flesh union of Adam and Eve, not the creational order of Eve. It’s interesting how in the two places Paul argues for a creational order, egals protest, and then they insert it into a place where it is not even in view?

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-07

Still no answer Mark? I would think you should try a positive approach of your own understanding of authority and submission first. If you have not yet figured out how to give a response, that would be quite telling. It is harder than it looks, eh?

You said to pinklight:

Does he talk about about Adam providing for Eve- NO! The only thing that goes back to Gen is the one flesh union- the marriage- not the supposed provisional priority of the male

Paul talks about the husband to love and give himself up as Christ did. Giving oneself up is part of the provisional aspect of Christ’s love that is to be reflected by the husband and he is to “nourish” her, a link to provision. Are you not complying with this and refusing to provide for your own wife as Paul said husbands were to do? Why a denial that there is a provisional aspect of Christ’s love which is to be modeled by the husband?

Here is the fallicy of Cheryl’s son’s whole argument. Not to mention his claims that we are equal with Christ in the sense that we are sinless and whatever else it was that he said.

No wonder you said whatever else it was that he said because you obviously were skimming through it again and misread. Ryan did not say that “we are sinless”. I would encourage you to understand a position first before you throw out an answer, because an uninformed “answer” doesn’t make for a good argument.

Both ideas are completely foreign to the text and Paul’s meaning.

Not so. Provision is in the text. See Jamieson, Fausset, Brown:

(Eph. 5:29) nourisheth—Greek, “nourisheth it up,” namely, to maturity. “Nourisheth,” refers to food and internal sustenance; “cherisheth,” to clothing and external fostering.
Jamieson, R., Fausset, A. R., Fausset, A. R., Brown, D., & Brown, D. (1997). A commentary, critical and explanatory, on the Old and New Testaments (Eph 5:29).

Mark, I can’t believe that you are working to be in ministry and then you ask this question:

Now in what way does Christ provide physically for us.

Christ as God provides our daily food, our very breath and life and our spiritual nourishment. I could go on and on and on about what He does for us as our source, but surely you have seen this from the Scriptures and from personal experience or do you not even pray for your needs?

Philippians 4:19 (NAS)
19 And my God will supply all your needs according to His riches in glory in Christ Jesus.

Does he go and earn money and supply our physical needs in the same way a husband is supposed to under the egalitarian position.

You are just playing silly. It comes across as mocking Christ to me. Are you really intending to do that?

Straight away the comparison Paul makes becomes meaningless.

Looking at the text in a mocking fashion will always make it seem “meaningless”. Is this the best that you can do?

That is why egals have to talk about Christ provision being different to the husbands provision- thus we no longer have a comparison.

Provision is compared to provision. No one has ever said that the multi-human body that is Christ’s wife is to be taken exactly as the one woman human wife of one man. No exegete compares the two as exactly the same and for you to make Christ’s work as Savior as exactly the same as the husband’s work for his wife, your entire “case” has fallen apart at the seams.

So why is the comp position so much more consistent- it doesn’t swap and fiddle and sqirm and make nonsense out of the passage.

The comp position isn’t consistent at all. You can’t show us how a wife’s submission is something that God refuses to allow a man to do the same thing for her. Secondly the issue of the husband’s authority and how he is to take it over his wife is not consistent or even understandable and most comps cannot even come up with a real life example of Christ’s love for the bride as shown by their own taking authority over their wife. Third, comps continually have to disregard the reciprocal grammar of verse 21. Why? Because it doesn’t fit their world view. Egals don’t need to ignore the grammar to make their view fit.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-07

Mark you said:

Your above example is a good case of muddying the waters. We are not talking about mutual respect but mutual submission.

It was your example. Why don’t you give an example of submission if you think that your wife’s respect isn’t a good example of submission?

I would not just ‘overide’ so to speak my wife’s instruction to my kids because i am sure that her love for them is the reason for stopping them. If i thought she was being unfair i would go and address that with her. If i did just override her, would that show my children that i love her like Christ does the Church- no it wouldn’t.

As Sue said a wife needs respect also from her husband and her “law” needs to be obeyed by the kids. Even if you didn’t see a reason why the kids couldn’t do what you wife forbid them to do, a godly husband would support his wife’s decision thus submitting to her “law” with the children. This is mutual submission and with it comes mutual respect.

I am very glad that you can see that overriding your wife’s decision is not Christ-like. That is exactly how egals feel. It is also my contention that most comps really live exactly like egals do in their marriages. Respectfully godly men will give their wives mutual submission through mutual respect even if they fail to call it this name. They will with love, give to their wives the same kind of things that their wives give to them. Your example shows this and for this I say you are a good man.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-08

Mark,
You said:

How does my example show mutual submission Cheryl…enlighten me? Maybe you egals just live like comps and have false labels attached to comp theology…like dominate, abuse etc etc

Your example doesn’t show mutual submission. I didn’t ask you to show mutual submission. What I asked you to show was an example of your wife’s submission where she is doing something to/for you that you would never do for her. That would be an example of unilateral submission. But if you would send the kids to their mother to get an answer just like she sent them to you, then you are both submitting to the other person’s decision in a very similar way.

I do have to go to bed now so I will leave you with this request. Could you please come up with an example of where your wife submits to you and the same kind of action that she does, you could not, would not, and cannot do to/for her (supposing that God forbids you to have this kind of submission to/for her).

This is the very same question I gave you before, just worded in a way so you can not miss the question. The example you gave was a good example of your wife’s submission to you, but your example is also a good example of where you can easily do the same thing for her in certain circumstances so it is not an example of a completely unilateral submission.

So what is unilateral submission for your wife to do in your marriage where you will never, ever for any reason do the same for your wife?

And where does your authority come in? I haven’t seen it in practice with your wife. Perhaps you can give a generic example of Jim and June and how Jim takes a Christ-like authority over his wife. Since you are also out of time, we can pick this up tomorrow. Okay?

pinklight 2010-06-08

Does he talk about about Adam providing for Eve- NO! The only thing that goes back to Gen is the one flesh union- the marriage- not the supposed provisional priority of the male.

Adam’s body provided for Eve’s body. That is how she was created, from Adam’s body and it is why there can even be a one flesh union between the two.

In this same way, husbands ought to love their wives as their own bodies…29After all, no one ever hated his own body, but he feeds and cares for it, just as Christ does the church

Christ’s body put to death is what provides us with life, and part of Adam’s body was what God used to create Eve’s body and this is why “source” is tied into the meaning of the head/body metaphor – a unity.

Sure let’s assume this is correct. How then does this apply to the husband in Ephesus who is the source of his wife? In what way is the Ephesian coming out of her husband? This is the problem, the comparison is between the husband and wife in Ephesus and the Church and Christ, from which Paul draws on the one flesh union of Adam and Eve, not the creational order of Eve.

Paul tells husbands to love their wives as their own bodies and he can tell husbands to do that because Adam’s body was used to make Eve’s body and since she was made from him they become one flesh. It has nothing to do with Eve being created second (creational order), but rather her origin – that she was taken out of the man.

It’s interesting how in the two places Paul argues for a creational order, egals protest, and then they insert it into a place where it is not even in view?

Creation order is mentioned only in 1 Tim 2, it is not in 1 Co 11. Paul talks about origin in 1 Co 11, but he does NOT mention Adam being created first and then Eve. So what’s the second place you had in mind where Paul speaks of Adam being created first then Eve? And in Eph 5, Adam being created first (priority of creation) is not in view. There is a difference between priority of creation (Adam being created first and then Eve) and origin (woman being taken from man or Adam from the ground). They are not the same thing.

NN 2010-06-08

The recent conversation which I participated in led to some reflections on what I observed:
http://nuallan.livejournal.com/53936.html

(no, I’m not back and won’t be checking for response to this, just thought it might interest some)

gengwall 2010-06-08

Cheryl – I agree with you. Mark’s example does not at all show authority of the “head” over the “body”, but instead looks far more like egal mutual submission. I also agree with your parallel example where I suspect Mark would give equal deference to his wife to make a decision. Moreover, while being just a simple example which I appreciate, it can hardly be proven scripturally that the decision to let children leave the table (or any other such decision in the household) is the males unilateral role or that the male is somehow unilaterally gifted (and the female unqualifies) to make such a decision. Which means it boils down, as usual, to individual couples “doing family” in their own way.

In my house, the situation was actually reversed. My wife, coming from a stricter family, was more prone to expect the children to stay at the table until everyone was done eating. The kids, knowing I would be inclined to allow an early departure, would ask me first if they could leave. Out of respect for my wife’s views on the subject, I would defer to her to give the final release. Certainly, Mark would not claim that my wife was usurping my authority by “leading” in this family situation, nor would he claim I was shirking my responsibility. Or would he? I think such a position would be absurd, so I expect he agrees that the way we did the dinner thing was just as legitimate as the way he did. Which proves our point – it is not an exercise in authority.

Mark – what we need from you is something that you believe is universally and unilaterally within the husband’s sphere of authority. Something that only husbands are qualified and commanded by scripture to do within the marriage. Something that would consitute sin if either the husband deferred to the wife or the wife took the lead. Is there anything in your marriage or in comp theology that husbands must always do and wives are never allowed to do. And please, when you answer, give us the scriptural playbook to back up the theology. Your saying so doesn’t make it so – we must see where scripture says it’s so.

TL 2010-06-08

“Mark – I like your example because it is simple and common. But it does not prove any of your points.
For one, your wife’s submission to you in this particular example does not establish in any way that you are in authority over her”

Gengwall, actually I disagree. Maybe because I have lived that picture before, I understand what leads up to that. Plus, note Mark’s statements describing it.
1. likely the children are not allowed to leave because father has commanded it. This could be one reason why wife defers to husband for children to ask permission. Or she could be deferring everything she can to husband, which is also the sign of a humbled wife.
2. The fact that wife always defers to husband is not innocent of influence. Wife may have learned that life is easier if she does this. I’ve seen this often enough.
3. An atmosphere in which no one is allowed to leave the table until everyone is through eating and father is in charge of when anyone can leave, is very authoritative.

Mark describes himself as head and leader. He believes his wife defers to him in order to show that “Father” leads the home. It appears that Mark takes some pride in the fact that he doesn’t have to command his wife to defer to him, but that she does so voluntarily in order to show his authority. All of this describes an atmosphere of authority and submission. Quite true.

However, you may have noted that a wife can defer to a husband without it being about the husband’s authority. And a husband can defer to his wife without it being about her authority. Quite true. But would you actually take pride in not allowing anyone to leave the dinner table until everyone had finished eating? Maybe you might do that for a particular dinner, but my guess is not as a required routine. That could get really old and tiring. IMO the whole atmosphere of authority submission get’s old and tiring. It IS INDEED role playing as the French call it. I’ve lived a bit of that in my youth, and some of it as a spouse.

But then I concede that some people enjoy being boss and some people enjoy being bossed. It is their choice.

The end line though is that type of living is not prescribed in Scripture. Everyone is really allowed to organize their marriage however they choose with minimal guidelines. How anyone can get an authority submission marital paradigm out of Ephesians is an interesting mystery.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-08

Yup, putting words in Mark’s mouth. A little poke in fact. Mark has said that he will not submit to his wife and I added the real meaning of submission – to go underneath a person to meet their need. Now I realize that Mark isn’t seeing submission this way. I would venture to say that he does this very thing regularly but refuses to call it submission and my little poke was set to bring this out. Gengwall you uncovered my ruse. Rats!

I would like to see Mark’s example of manly authority over his wife and her submission that he would never stoop to doing for her. But in reality I think that they live just as egalitarian a life as we all do for the most part and that Mark never takes his authority. Sadly men taking authority over their wives is actually hurtful to women whether a man knows it or not. By the time that many men find out the harm that they have caused, their marriage is already destroyed beyond repair. I sincerely doubt that Mark does takes authority over his wife because it strikes me as a inner attitude that he has rather than an outer taking authority over his wife in reality.

I also doubt that Mark in reality would fail to support his wife with submission when she needs it. He would just call it something else because I believe that Mark truly does love his wife and he would do for her whatever she needs even if it is letting her take authority over a situation that is highly important to her. While Mark may be rude here sometimes and he still has not repented for his calling me the equivalent of a self-righteous Pharisee, I believe that he is gentle with his wife respecting her needs and never calling her Pharisaical names in order to demean her. If I am right, Mark is not the same way in his marriage as he comes across on this blog.

Lydia 2010-06-08

“Let me encourage everyone here to perhaps devote more energy to giving a realist alternative to a comp interpretation”

Mark, Mark, Mark…Do you not realize that many of us lived as comps for many years? I could quote you all the talking points forwards and backwards. I have read their Talmuds. Sat in most of their seminars. Listened to thousands of comp sermons.

It was only by studying the Word indepth and begging the Holy Spirit to remove the filters did I see the contradictions of the comp proof texts. I can give you ONE: The Joel prophecy in Acts. Oh, I know all the comp arguments about this one but they are lies using a few other badly translated proof texts and very bad interpretations. (Ironically, the Puritans agree with me on one bad translation the comps use to negate the Joel Prophecy for women)

But I did the same thing that they are asking here. I started asking for practical examples of the husband authority on a day to day basis. I asked this of well known comp couples. Of seminar presenters and many pastors who focus on this stuff (to the neglect of the Gospel, I might add)

And guess what! The answers were ALWAYS what the wife should do. The point was that SHE had to make him feel like the big authority. It was all about what she does. This was no matter if the wife worked 50 hours a week or not. It was the same message. And it started sounding like a rule book or to do list or one of those 10 step how to books.

And your example was about what your WIFE does. It never ceases to amaze me how this is the same everywhere in the comp movement! The focus is on the women.

The bottomline is that if you both are believers, you seek the Kingdom first. The relationship with Christ is first and foremost. And that relationship with Christ is what will bring a great loving marriage. But you comps have women focused on their role. They are taught to focus on YOUinstead of Christ. It is a man centered religion of works. After all, none of us can serve two masters.

I suggest you think of ONE FLESH union as it is: ONE FLESH. There is no authority in one flesh.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-08

I actually have no problem with a wife making sure that the kids see the father as an authority figure. After all they are with her all day and it is her authority that they must respect. The dad they see far less (usually) and I think it can be really sweet for a wife to defer to her husband to show respect to him as a model for her kids. What wouldn’t be good would be if the husband did not show her equal respect and disrespected her authority. This would give the children the idea that she is an inferior authority and would cause them also to disrespect their mother.

I saw this attitude in the Middle East when we were there in the mid 1980’s. The wives have no respect from the children because the father is set up as the key authority figure. We saw a boy throwing rocks at his sister. His mom tried to stop him but he only responded by throwing rocks at her. Our guide told us that the mothers are not allowed to discipline the sons as that is taking authority over a male and it isn’t allowed. If she were to discipline him she would invite a beating from her husband. The result is that the males are raised with a haughty mindset of male privilege that allows them to disrespect women.

While Mark’s wife is willingly giving her husband respect (and I commend her for her effort), if he does not also show her respect for her authority with the children he is giving them an unspoken message that he alone is worthy of respect and only males have the highest worth.

I believe that one day when we are in heaven there will be some sadness at the lack of humility that some expressed here on this earth thinking that they alone are worthy. Jesus never took an attitude of having a higher worth nor did He give the impression that He alone could make decisions or that He alone had authority and He is God! If He could live a life of respect for others and not lording it over those less than He is, then surely godly men today should live as Christ did in humility and respect.

Kristen 2010-06-08

Mark said,
“The way i see it in our western egalitarian, non-authority culture, children no longer have respect. Our children run wildly around since they are taught that there is no such thing as authority- this is a direct result of our culture and you want me to push my children head-long into it.”
In our household, both my husband and I encourage the children’s respect for the authority of the other. Our children respect both their father and their mother.
I wanted to ask for clarification in the example you gave, Mark. You said the children were at the table with your wife and you both present. The children asked their mother for permission to leave the table– with you present– and she told them to ask you. Is that right? It seems to me that your children must also respect their mother’s authority in the home, or they would have simply bypassed her and asked you directly. This is why I don’t think the situation TL describes (poignantly, from her own experience) applies in your home– for if your wife were “humbled” in that way, the children would know that it’s no use asking the mother anything, because only the father has any say. Since your children plainly do NOT know this, I agree with Cheryl that you are a good man who teaches the children to “honor your father AND your mother.” Sadly, many marriages use the doctrines of complementarianism to divest the wife of honor. There are homes in which “honor your father and mother” is lived out as if it said “children and mothers, honor the father.” I’m glad for TL’s input, because she shows how easily this can happen, if these doctrines are taken too far. I am glad you do not take them too far. Kudos to you.
But a Christian egalitarian marriage does NOT mean a no-authority family where the children run wild. It means that both the husband and the wife have equal authority over the children.

pinklight 2010-06-08

Is that GOOD?

SM 2010-06-09

Referring our children to their mom or dad has never been about a show of who is in authority. Rather, in our home it is about deference being shown to both the husband (dad) and wife (mom) because the other may be better equipped to inform the other’s decision or to make the decision. More importantly, for us, it is about “inviting the other parent” into a circumstance or situation and presenting a “united front” to our children, not about creating a scene that dad is in ultimate authority.

So, though we don’t have the exact custom Mark does for the dinner table, the scenario in our home would play out accordingly:

if mom were asked by a child to be dismissed prematurely from the table, she could remind the child of the family’s rule and dad would reinforce most likely with a joke or a fun challenge, etc. However, if mom chose to show latitude for reasons only known to her at the time she could excuse the child and dad would not feel threatened because he has full confidence in her and trusts her because he knows she brings him good and not harm. Or, mom when asked invites dad into the process, and they decide together. The latter is not too different from Mark’s example, except the motivation. The motivation here is to show deference and to use a natural occurence as an opportunity to present a “united front” not about a scene to show who is in ultimate authority.

Each example affirms the mom and dad’s authority in the lives of their children, shows confidence in each other, and models respect, deference, and two lovingly working together as one.

Lydia 2010-06-09

“And one question I have is, why? Why is the focus on the women or what the wife does?”

I have studied CBMW writings for some time now and have several answers:

  1. Because men are the “authority” teachers and this is what they teach.  If the “authority’ says this interpretation is correct, then it must be.

When they teach on the male ‘role’ they are vague as gengwell mentioned above: spiritual leader, final authority, etc. These are vague roles that can really cover just about anything the individual husband wants it to cover. They see themselves as God ordained authorities as both teachers and husbands. (Except that they should see themselves as servants. But they have managed to redefine servant as authority)

  1. Because they must have women obeying these man made interpretations or the whole comp structure fails.  So, they teach this in a way that makes it sinful for a women not to obey. They teach it to make women think  that, in effect, she is NOT obeying God if she does not follow her ‘role’. So, this makes  the focus on women. And it makes her the sinner.  Have you noticed how they deal with abuse of various kinds? Piper says she should endure abuse for a season. See, she is righteous if she endures abuse. I often wonder if Piper would go to work each day and endure abuse from someone who claims to be a Christian? He could escape it by gong home. The wife cannot.

  2. Many comp teachers talk about the husbands ‘role’ in such as way that is really silly. He is to love her…ok, how is that taught? Date night, flowers, telling her you love her. Very shallow sort of things.

Her “role” is to support him in whatever he does…this comes down to whatever he thinks she should do. Even down to being careful how you give driving instructions so that it won’t look like you are ‘teaching’ him.

It is all about elevating men. Which goes back to the fact that they must be  insecure about who they are in the first place. Otherwise this would not be such a huge issue that has become a mass  movement within Christianity and has more folks thinking about thier roles than their relationship with Christ.

What concerns me most is that they humanize spiritual counsel in Eph 5. The husband is NOT Christ. He is a fallen sinner saved by the same grace as the wife. But these men map themselves to Christ. Are not women to be Christlike, too?

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-09

Craig,
You said:

In Eph 5, wives are to submit to their husbands because he is the head of the wife. The church is to submit to Christ because He is the head of the church.
This can mean either:
Wife/church submit (obey) because husband/Christ is head (authoritative ruler) of wife/church OR
Wife/church submit (serve) because husband/Christ is head (loves, cares for) wife/church

I believe that the second reason is correct but I also think that it goes beyond this reason for those men who do not know or love the Lord Jesus and who may not show love or respect for their wives. I believe that wives will submit to serve these unbelieving husbands also in ways that will cause them to see Jesus in them. This honors the Lord Jesus and may very well bring them to the Lord. So while it is much easier to serve a husband and receive from him when he is a believer who truly wants to love and sacrifice for his wife, we are also required to respect an unbelieving husband who has not yet come to understand that his wife is not beneath him but is his own flesh.

If all husbands would act first in love and sacrifice, their wives would have a very easy job to respect them, love them and serve them with joy in ways that honor them. It is not so easy to submit to a man who treats a wife like her submission is what belongs to him as his “right” and who uses that to selfishly get whatever he wants from her. I believe that being in the marriage as “head” he is the one who is to initiate the sacrifice first and what flows from that in his relationship with his wife will be peace, honor and love. Those who demand submission before they have a heart attitude of sacrifice are not doing what is required of them as “head”.

The entire mindset of patriarchy is male entitlement and you-do-it-first mentality that places the onus on the wife to initiate the sacrificial submission. While wives are to submit no matter the “attitude” of their husbands, I believe that the “head” place in the body is to “start” or “initiate” just as Jesus initiated our relationship with Him by coming to earth even when we didn’t know Him and we were still alienated from God. It is interesting that most pastors do not give this kind of counsel but look to the wife to be the “head” in initiating a sacrificial submission in order for him to “respond” in a good way to her. I believe that this is completely backwards to the “leaving” and “cleaving” that the man is called to do.

Mark 2010-06-09

Only one brief comment becasue time is limited,

If my children ask me first to hop down, would i tell them to ask their mother aswell…no i wouldn’t.

My example does not say that the wife does not have authority over our children, nor able to make decisions. It simply shows, that when both parents are there, and an authoritative decision is to be made, i make it. My wife expects me to make it. Would she make the same decision if i were not there…of course she would.

I have never said i need to ‘take authority’ over my wife, as appears common in these threads. It is not about ‘taking’ the auhtority, it is whether authority exists. Even when authority exists we can choose not to obey it. I can choose to break laws, but it doesn’t mean that the authority to fine me, no longer applies.

My wife could equally choose to usurp my authority, since it is not in my opinion, my job to ‘take’. As i have said earlier, the Bible commands her and thus God, not me. If she chooses to reject God’s commandment, it is between her and God. Likewise if she chooses to obey God’s commandment, it is between her and God. I will never, and don’t ‘take’ or demand authority from my wife.

To apply it differently, when we moved house last year to another state, we discussed the issue, prayed about it etc. However, when the crunch time came and we needed to decide to do it, my wife left it to me to make the decision. In this process, i did not ignore her, abuse her, not take her feelings etc into account. Simply when an authoritative decision is to be made for us or our family, i make it. If i choose to make a decision deliberately to antogonise my wife, or to make life harder for her, is that reflecting Christ-no it is not. My decisions and thus authority, i always try to manage in a Christ like way.

Anyway i’ve said enough about my marriage.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-09

Mark,
I appreciate your willingness to discuss this issue with an example from your own marriage.

You said:

It simply shows, that when both parents are there, and an authoritative decision is to be made, i make it.

What do you mean by this? Do you mean that your wife has no power or authority to make an “authoritative” decision when you are home? Also why would the simple matter of when children leave the table require an “authoritative decision”? When you say this it seems to imply that your wife doesn’t have the authority to tell the kids when they can leave the table. Are they many other things that she doesn’t have the authority to do? Does she had the authority to tell the kids when it is bedtime when you are home?

My wife expects me to make it. Would she make the same decision if i were not there…of course she would.

It seems like her authority is there when you are not home and when you are home you have an unspoken authority that claims the right to make all decisions regarding the children when the two of you are together. Is this how you see it?

I have never said i need to ‘take authority’ over my wife, as appears common in these threads. It is not about ‘taking’ the auhtority, it is whether authority exists.

How would we know if authority exists unless someone takes authority?

Secondly in your “authority” role can you give your wife the opportunity to make an “authoritative” decision when you are both there or would that remove your authority?

Even when authority exists we can choose not to obey it.

If you said nothing and your wife made a decision concerning the kids without deferring to you to make the decision, would that be disobeying your authority?

More to come…

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-09

Mark,
You said:

In this process, i did not ignore her, abuse her, not take her feelings etc into account. Simply when an authoritative decision is to be made for us or our family, i make it.

May I ask if you made the “authoritative decision” to do what she wanted to do or did you make the decision to do what you wanted to do?

If i choose to make a decision deliberately to antogonise my wife, or to make life harder for her, is that reflecting Christ-no it is not.

How about if you make a decision that you want to do but you don’t do it deliberately to antagonize her, but you still did not choose what she wanted. Do you believe that is reflecting Christ to her since you know better than she does what is good for her? Or how would you explain how your decision which is opposite of hers would reflect Christ to her?

My decisions and thus authority, i always try to manage in a Christ like way.

Actually, if I may be so bold to say, that it isn’t your authority. It seems to me that you have no authority unless she gives it to you. If you do still have authority if she doesn’t surrender it to you, then how is that shown?

It is rare that I get to see inside a complementarian’s brain and try to understand how they think. I really appreciate being able to ask questions and any answers that you can give would be much appreciated. I think that we all appreciate knowing how and why you consider yourself to have authority of yourself. It sure seems to me that unless your wife gives you hew “right” to make a decision, thus empowering you, that you don’t really have any authority at all. Perhaps I am wrong about this but I fail to see how. Maybe you can enlighten me.

Kristen 2010-06-09

Cheryl said,
“The more I think about what Mark is saying, the more I believe that his wife is the key to his authority. He has not authority to force himself on her or to take authority over her so if she doesn’t give him his “rights” there is nothing that he can do. In other words the power is in the woman’s hands not in his. She gives him the right to make the final decision and she gives him the right to make an “authoritative” decision.”
Yeah, but I wonder if Mark thinks about it more like this: He has authority, but it is not Christlike to insist upon or take authority. After all, Christ has authority, certainly, but He lets us choose whether or not to follow Him. Even so, it must be up to Mark’s wife to choose to follow Mark. Logically, choosing not to force authority upon someone is not the same as not having authority.
Just trying to be fair. (grin)
I had a question, though. My husband has been working really hard on his final projects to graduate with his graphic design degree. (He’ll be done tomorrow! Yay!) After a presentation of his portfolio that he made to the faculty, his fellow students and their families, we both wanted to go have lunch. He was so tired that he had absolutely no desire to make a decision about where we should go for lunch– nor was he really capable of making a decision at that point because his brain was in a fog of fatigue. He did not come right out and say, “I want you to make the decision,” but I’ve been his wife for 22 years, and I know him. So I made the decision. I said, “We’re going to such and such a restaurant.” He nodded and (I know Mark will hate the way I say this) gladly submitted. (another grin)
If we were complementarians, would this be considered to be usurping his authority?
Or how about this: Supposing he comes home from school with a high fever and a cough. Suppose I take one look at him, lead him to the couch, press him down upon it, cover him with a blanket, and then go get medicine and a glass of water, hold them out and say, “Take this!” Am I usurping his authority? When he takes those pills, I’d call that “submission.” What would a complementarian call it?

Lydia 2010-06-10

“As i have said earlier, the Bible commands her and thus God, not me. If she chooses to reject God’s commandment, it is between her and God. Likewise if she chooses to obey God’s commandment, it is between her and God. I will never, and don’t ‘take’ or demand authority from my wife.”

Mark is making my points for me here. This is exactly what they believe. Note that it is a one way submission and if the wife does not submit, she is disobeying….NOT ONLY HER HUSBAND…BUT GOD!

(Never mind Eph 5:21. It simply does not apply to husbands or evidently, pastors or elders, either)

This is why all the focus must be on what the wife does or does not do in comp teaching. It is as if the husband represents God to the wife and by not obeying the husband she is a rebellious sinner.

But where does Eph 5 talk about authority and obediance?

Now, who does the husband obey in this scenerio? Of course, the civil authorities (like his wife must, too) and the church “authorities” (as they deem them that are just like the husband in this belief) but then they believe the husband has some direct link to God the wife does not have. How else could they believe he is her spiritual authority?

Question: Does the wife have to obey the church authorities? If so, do they have final say over the husband if it comes to that?

The more you get past the general comp teaching and delve into the specifics, the more bizarre and legalistic it gets in practice. What are the lines that seperate basic comp teaching from Patriarchal groups? The lines are the degree’s of legalism they teach.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-10

Kristen,
You said:

Logically, choosing not to force authority upon someone is not the same as not having authority.

Yes, you are right. However the question I still have is how do we know someone really has authority? With Christ we know that he has all enemies under his feet and he rules over them. He has authority to judge all lawbreakers whether they like it or not. Christ has true authority.

Now we know that each of us as believers also has authority. But what is that authority? We have authority over the earth and the animals and all spiritual authority that Christ gave us. But do we have authority to make decisions for other believers? If we did, they wouldn’t need to give us authority, we would already have it.

Mark shows us no way that we can tell that he truly has authority. We know that his wife gives him her own authority to make a decision, but we don’t see any authority that is inherent in him that would make it morally right to override his wife’s will.

Mark also has given us examples of how his wife has given him the right to make the final decision but he has not shown us through making those final decisions that he is sacrificing for his wife.

I think that however a husband and wife mutually decide to run their marriage should be up to them. After all if Mark were to sacrifice himself to make a final decision that would make them go his wife’s way, then what difference would that be to those marriages where sometimes it is the husband who submits to the wife’s desires? In the end it is the same thing. However if a wife gives the final decision to her husband and he uses that authority that she gives him to promote his own way every time, I would submit that she has given him the power to be selfish and I don’t think that should be something that is encouraged in men (or women!)

elastigirl 2010-06-10

All this discussion on whether or not the husband truly has authority in the relationship he has with his wife, or is it that she simply treats him as if he does (in which case “authority” is entirely irrelevant).

Reminds me of a scene in the movie “My Boig Fat Greek Wedding”. Michael Constantine and Lainie Kazan (a couple married for many years with grown children) are sitting at a table in their family-owned restaurant with their friend or relative Andrea Martin. Lainie and Andrea have come up with an idea that would be a good solution to a problem they are all aware of. The success of this idea requires the participation of all 3 of them, including Michael. Yet they know that Michael would never buy into this idea because they are the ones who came up with it and not he himself. So they proceed to approach it all very obliquely, chatting about the problem, “wondering” about some “hypothetical solution” out loud with minimal description but enough for anyone to logically fill in the blanks. And lo and behold, “Eureka! I’ve found it!” – Michael comes up with a grand solution that he has claimed as his own, and “presto!” Lainie and Andrea’s plans are set in motion. A good solution that will benefit many people.

Everyone I was with when seeing the movie laughed, men and women, knowing that this is simply how it is.

I think it’s obvious that whatever “authority” the husband has is simply what the wife allows him to have. And it’s not so much authority as his “participation”. I just prefer to call it what it is rather than what it’s not.

Charis 2010-06-11

The hupotasso verb describing how a wife “is subject” to her husband is Hupotasso in the Passive Voice: A Wife’s Submission is descriptive rather than prescriptive )
Further contemplating the passive voice of the wife’s subjection as stated in Ephesians 5:24:
“Therefore as the church is subject to Christ,
so also the wives [to] husbands in everything” Eph 5:24

I have investigated other occurrences of hupotasso in the passive voice.
Question: The hupotasso verb below is also in the passive voice (different tense but passive voice).
“For the creature
was subjected to frustration
not willingly
but by the will of the one
who hath subjected the same in hope”
Romans 8:20
When did this occur?
What was the human female creature subjected to?
Hint: see Genesis 3:16

Kristen 2010-06-11

I would personally like to say that I don’t think we should make moral judgments about WHY people are comps. Many are simply following the Bible as best they read it. I would argue with their hermeneutic, but not with them.
For others, the “Stepford” kind we have been discussing (involved in movements like Quiverfull or True Womanhood), the problem usually formulaic thinking. They want certainty and controllable outcomes, and believe that by following a certain set formula, in marriage as well as other areas of life, they can successfully predict a happy outcome. But certainty is not granted to us in this life, and the desire for it, I think, comes from fear. Perfect love casts out fear, and I hope they let God draw them into more perfect love and trust of Him, whatever happens.
Then there are narcissistic personalities that, due to real mental illness, require control and domination. For these, patriarchalist doctrines are convenient ways to use God’s authority to create and uphold their own power. They need prayer and intervention.
Of course, comp or patriarchalist doctrines can and do feed selfishness and pride that is already resident in the human heart, as well. But many who sincerely believe comp doctrine, strive against selfishness and pride and are gentle and humble, serving those they consider subordinate to them.
Many times I have seen men who sincerely believe these doctrines and are Christlike in character, put themselves under considerable strain trying to serve their families while leading the household all on their own. By not letting their ezer kenego (“facing-them strong help”) come alongside as an equal partner, they are doing what God created Eve to keep them from having to do, for it is not fit that they should rule the creation alone. I feel sympathy for them and hope they will explore another hermeneutic that will ease the pressure on the husband and set the wife free.

pinklight 2010-06-12

Cheryl,
You got mail…. 🙂

gengwall 2010-06-13

Craig – I’m glad you brought up Eph 5. Take a careful read and note where the authority is applied (I sugest NASB, but you can get multiple versions at blueletterbible.org). Is it authority of head over body or is the authority aspect outside of the metaphor. I think you will find tha Christ’s authority is expressed over “principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named”. CHrist’s authority is oevr the world and is for the benefit of His body.

It is also important to continue reading into chapter 2, for the passage continues as Paul speaks specifically of the body.

Eph 2:1-2 And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, in which you formerly walked according to the [fn] course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience.

The “all things” that chapter one speaks of, which Christ is over, are all things of “the world”, which we were once a part of. But no more.

2:4-5 “But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead [fn] in our transgressions, made us alive together [fn] with Christ (by grace you have been saved),”

And especially don’t miss this

2:6 “and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,”

Not only is Jesus’ authority over the world exercised for the benfit of His body, /but we will share in that authority!

Chapter 2 ends with some great and encouraging words. The metaphor has changed to a temple, with Jesus the cornerstone. We are the remains of the building, in a sense, the body of the temple, “growing” up from that cornerstone. We are still part of the whole, not outsiders who the cornerstone is in authority over. Notice, even in the temple metaphor, how the language is very similar to the head/body language of Col 2:19.

Eph 2:19-22 So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the [fn] saints, and are of God’s household, having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the corner (kephale/head) stone, in whom the whole building, being fitted together, is growing into a holy temple in the Lord, in whom you also are being built together into a dwelling of God in the Spirit.

In the final analysis, the question that needs to be asked is – “is the authority in Eph 1 being expressed within the head/body metaphor, creating a hierarchy, or outside of it creating a symbiosis that benefits and joins in that authority”. What say you Craig?

pinklight 2010-06-13

No worries. Thanks Cheryl!

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-13

Craig #303,
You said:

If I use the context to work out the meaning of the head/body metaphor the head loves, feeds, cares for the body and is united as one with the body. There is no mention of authority. But if I go back to Eph 1:20-23 the head/body metaphor seems to be associated with authority. Is Paul using the metaphor in different ways within the one letter? Does anyone have any thoughts on this?

There has been some very good comments here and I will just jump in to point out a couple of things. If you start from the beginning you will see that we have been blessed with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ (verse 3). This is because we are so connected to Christ that when He is seated in heaven, we are said to be seated there with Him.

Ephesians 2:6 (NAS)
6 and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,

Ephesians 1:22 becomes quite clear when we consider that it is the one body (head – Christ and body – church) that is seated at the right hand of God in the heavenly places. With this understanding we can see our place with Christ:

Ephesians 1:20–21 (NAS)
20 which He brought about in Christ, when He raised Him from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly places,
21 far above all rule and authority and power and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this age but also in the one to come.

In the verse 22 we can see that the things that are placed in subjection are placed “under His feet” and that Christ is “head over all things” to the church.

Ephesians 1:22–23 (NAS)
22 And He put all things in subjection under His feet, and gave Him as head over all things to the church,
23 which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all.

The church is not placed in subjection, it is all things placed under our feet as we are the body of Christ. In this context “gave Him as head over all things” is a position of preeminence of first place as is fitting for the source of all creation. Col. 1:18 brings this out well

Colossians 1:18 (NAS)
18 He is also head of the body, the church; and He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that He Himself will come to have first place in everything. It is the first place of importance as He is the beginning and ending of all things.

In this context although there is authority, but it is not authority over the church which is His body. It is authority over all other power, all rule, all dominion and all other “names”. And the subjection of all other sources of power are placed under Him and under us. It isn’t a situation of the head taking authority over the body but rather that the head and body are one and all else is under that one body.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-13

1 Peter 2:6 (NAS)
6 For this is contained in Scripture:
“BEHOLD, I LAY IN ZION A CHOICE STONE, A PRECIOUS CORNER stone,
AND HE WHO BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED.”

Jesus was set in place as a precious corner foundational stone upon which His church was to be built. As the corner stone Christ gave up His life so that the church could exist. Which that sacrifice there would be no building.

Contrast that with what the very first man did. He was laid as a cornerstone, the first one to be created and from him would come his bride. As the first stone laid and the source of his wife, he was to cherish her as his own body. He was to treat her as he treats his own body and the one who would initiate sacrifice as an example. But the first Adam failed to do that. Instead of identifying the deception and the deceiver (and he recognized both since he was not deceived) he allowed his own body (his wife) to be destroyed.

But Jesus as the last Adam did not fail to provide for His own body. He gave all He had to come and receive His wife to Himself. He laid down His life, He nourished us, He protected us and He allowed us to respond to Him in willingly love. He never took an authority to demand love but as the perfect example of husbandly love, He initiated the sacrifice, initiated the cherishing and initiated the clinging to or joining Himself with her. When a man follows Jesus’ example, he will willingly give himself for his bride to bring her up to his level so that she too has all the privileges and rights as he does. He will sacrifice himself to give her everything that she needs and not selfishly demand that she serve him and die to herself so that his needs will be met.

I believe that men as “head” of their wives (not head over their wives) have been set up by God as the preeminent part of the body to initiate in every way so that the wife is granted equality and equal opportunity to serve God. In the church there have been godly men who have elevated women past the place where the world has held females. The world values women as less than men in order to use them up for men’s benefit. When they are of no use, they are discarded. But Christianity with godly men has changed that to place a value on women that far exceeds the world’s value. When the church changes their mindset so that the men understand that Jesus gave up everything for His bride to elevate her beside Him, and they understand this they will release women to be beside them too. And when men and women walk in unity and in equality in the church, each working in the special giftedness that each has been given by the Holy Spirit, we will be a light set high on a hill to the world showing the heart of God. No longer desiring to rule over each other, but dying to self to elevate the other past the restrictions and the prejudices of the world.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-13

Craig,
You said:

Are there better words for submit that would accurately convey its meaning?

I see Christian submission as meaning two things:

  1. Submission for the benefit of another in order to lift them up in their need.
  2. Submission to receive the good that someone is offering for your own benefit.

When we submit with #1 we are elevating the person’s need and well-being as greater than our own need thus serving them with true Christ-like service. It isn’t a submission to be used as a door mat. Nor is it a submission that is placing oneself as a conquered party to one who is commanding and controlling your actions. In fact submitting oneself to the self-centered control of another isn’t fulfilling the duty of love. It would be affirming a sinful lifestyle and it is not God-honoring. A sacrificial service would be providing what they need not supporting their sin.

In the submission of #2 above, we serve another by giving our will to allow them to serve us with their gifts. One who is a teacher cannot properly serve as a teacher if no one is willing to allow them to teach. They may have great gifts for us in helping us to understand the Scriptures, but if we refuse to submit ourselves to their care, they are unable to teach us. It is the same thing for those who have the responsibility to protect us. If we will not listen to their warnings of dangerous teaching and dangerous wolves, then we are not allowing them to work out their calling. It is a source of grief for those who are mature and have the ability to protect us as they are called to do, but when the flock is unwilling to be protected. We are told to submit to them so that they can do their job without grief. This is the second kind of submission that is based on our own good as well as the good of the other person. It is submission to receive.

Wives are called to submit in all ways to their husbands. Therefore they are to submit to meet his needs and lift him up and they are to submit to receive from him the things that he is to provide for them. Mutuality is men also submitting to meet their wives needs and submitting to receive from the hand of their wives the things that will benefit them. This kind of submission and this kind of mutuality is beautiful and finds its source in the Lord Jesus.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-14

Craig,
You are welcome! I am very happy to serve in any way that I can.

As far as Eph 1:22 I see a preeminence being brought out.
Although Christ has authority over all things, and the world is not His body, I still see a connection to what Christ is to the church. Maybe there is more and I am missing it. But this is what I see. In Eph 1:22, Christ is placed in His proper position of preeminence as the origin and source of all things. He is the origin of all creation and the One who holds all things together. Thus He is the starting point, the preeminent One. As “head” He is the Alpha, the starting point the initiator. Because He is “far above all rule and authority” the term “far above” shows preeminence. He is so far above His creation because He is the uncreated Creator. He is the starting point of creation, the source of creation and its origin. Thus He is far above everything that originated from Him.

In the head-body metaphor, we are connected to Him and He is not just our source, but He is a part of us. He is our source and origin yet He is connected to us as one body. Everything that belongs to Him, belongs to us. There is an intimacy and oneness that isn’t there in the rest of creation.

So while we could add in “authority” in Ephesians 1:22, I see the preeminent Origin of all creation as the key thought to the term “head”. I think that if Paul had merely wanted to emphasize His authority rather than His place of preeminence, he would have used an authority word rather than an origin word (i.e. head).

That’s the way I see it. There is a connection to origin, but one part of the connection (head and body) is far more intimate and mutual then the other part (head over creation).

Mark 2010-06-14

Thus the fallacy of this position. Paul’s use of kephale changes dramatically.

2776 ??????? [kephale /kef•al•ay/] n f. From the primary kapto (in the sense of seizing); TDNT 3:673; TDNTA 429; GK 3051; 76 occurrences; AV translates as “head” 76 times. 1 the head, both of men and often of animals. Since the loss of the head destroys life, this word is used in the phrases relating to capital and extreme punishment. 2 metaph. anything supreme, chief, prominent. 2A of persons, master lord: of a husband in relation to his wife. 2B of Christ: the Lord of the husband and of the Church. 2C of things: the corner stone.

Note point 2 which deals with the metaphor. Are we dealing with people or things- this is important, contra Cheryl’s above argument.

And thus Paul’s use changes in Eph, and then again in 1 Cor 11, and then again in Col. I’m astonished how you can all just pick and choose your meanings like that. Does it not ring alarm bells?

Here is the basic thesis as i see it: In Eph 5, it cannot be authoritative since authority is not explicitly mentioned. In Eph 1 and Col, authority is not in view because it is not directly over the Church. In 1 Cor 11, the metaphor is not in view, so thus a meaning of ‘source or pre-eminance’ is employed to remove the authority otherwise prevelant. So, in other words, kephale is used by Paul to mean varying things. Is this a fair comment?

2 side points, if anyone wishes to answer for me…
1. Is Christ in authority over the Church at all?
2. Do Church leaders have authority?

Mark 2010-06-14

Cheryl,

A while ago you stated that i did not have authority over my wife because i did not ‘take’ it. Now you have just said regarding Christ…

” He never took an authority to demand love but as the perfect example of husbandly love, He initiated the sacrifice, initiated the cherishing and initiated the clinging to or joining Himself with her.”

So according to your train of thought, Christ did not ‘take’ authority. Does he therefore also NOT HAVE ANY AUTHORITY? This appears like a fallacy in your critiques…inconsistencies. Again…

“I believe that men as “head” of their wives (not head over their wives) have been set up by God as the preeminent part of the body to initiate in every way so that the wife is granted equality and equal opportunity to serve God.”

Explain how this is equality? The husband is to initiate, which is his role but not the wife’s? This seems like a weak way of saying he is in a leadership position, just with more careful words. If it is the husbands job to initiate to lift his wife up, is she equally called to lift up her husband? I assume you have to say no, since the wife is never called the ‘head’ of the husband, which is what your comment is based on. Why have you jumped from the marriage to service for God, saying the husbands job is to initiate to give her an equal opportunity to serve God. Seems like you missed the point of marriage? Can you state clearly what ‘head’ means for you in ALL of Paul’s usages. I’ll list all the passages from Paul’s letters, and you can give your defintion next to each.

will heap burning coals on his head.” Ro 12:20 2776
that Christ is the head of every man, 1Co 11:3 2776
and the man is the head of a woman, 1Co 11:3 2776
woman, and God is the head of Christ. 1Co 11:3 2776
something on his head while praying or 1Co 11:4 2776
or prophesying disgraces his head. 1Co 11:4 2776
her head uncovered while praying or 1Co 11:5 2776
or prophesying disgraces her head 1Co 11:5 2776
as the woman whose head is shaved. 1Co 11:5
if a woman does not cover her head, 1Co 11:6
her hair cut off or her head shaved, 1Co 11:6
head shaved, let her cover her head. 1Co 11:6
ought not to have his head covered, 1Co 11:7 2776
a symbol of authority on her head, 1Co 11:10 2776
a woman to pray to God with her head 1Co 11:13
or again the head to the feet, 1Co 12:21 2776
gave Him as head over all things to Eph 1:22 2776
aspects into Him who is the head, Eph 4:15 2776
the husband is the head of the wife, Eph 5:23 2776
Christ also is the head of the church, Eph 5:23 2776
He is also head of the body, the Col 1:18 2776
the head over all rule and authority; Col 2:10 2776
and not holding fast to the head, Col 2:19

gengwall 2010-06-14

Mark – My answer to 324 (1) would be that Christ does not have authority over the church in the marriage realtionship (unless you want to bring in eros as NN has suggested and then the church has equal authority). He does in other relationships but not in that one.

And no, we are not changing our definitions. We have consistently maintained that kephale does not mean “authority over”.

Regarding point two from the lexicon. We have discussed your choice of lexicon in the past and shown where it is in error regarding kephale. To the particular passages, you are incorrect, definition two is not the applicable definition. Definition one is the correct definition as used in the metaphor. It is the anatomical head that is the vehicle for the metaphor – the object whose attributes are being applied. It is persons who are the tenor – the objects who adopt the the attributes. To answer your question, we are dealing with people by looking at the attributes of things (parts of the anatomy). The direct relationship between people is not what is being described; it is the direct relationship of parts of the anatomy that is in view and it is that which Paul is superimposing on people. So, the dynamics of ordinary people to people relationships are irrelevant. Even more so if it is the dynamics of people to people relationships as described by English idoms. Hence – “head of the household” is a completely out of bounds expression in this discussion, since it has nothing to do with the anatomical relationship Paul is using as his vehicle to describe martial interaction. It is even more out of bounds because it doesn’t exist as a Greek idom. There is not such thing in ancient Greek as the “kephale of the household”. Kephale is simply not used in the same way we use “head” in English at tiems to descirbe an authority.

gengwall 2010-06-14

Cheryl will probably delve into Genesis a little more as well in her response, but we can’t lose sight of the importance of the Genesis account when dealing with Christ and His marriage to the Church. Paul certainly doesn’t lose sight of it.

Jesus is Adam; the Church is Eve. Does Jesus “need” the Church? Absolutely. Just as it was not good for Adam to be alone, it is not good for Jesus to be alone. The Church is Jesus’ ezer kenegdo. Does Jesus rule the world alone? Absolutely not. Just as with Adam and Eve (Gen 1), Jesus and the Church rule together (Eph 2 and others). Mark asks “Is Christ in authority over the Church at all?” Of course! BUT not in this instance where the relationship is a marriage. This stuns complementarians who can’t fathom the inverse of Mark’s question: “Is there any instance where Christ is not in authority over the Church”? Just as Adam was not in authority over Eve in the Garden, neither is Christ in authority in relation to His bride.

Is it no wonder that Paul so adamantly avoids authoritarian language when the Christ/Church or any other marriage relationship is in view? The use of the head/body metaphor seems, IMO, to be quite intentionally an effort to avoid worldly ideas, about husbands and wives. Paul’s frequent and exclusive use of this and other “mutually benefiting relationship” metaphors when speaking of marriage, whether Adam and Eve’s marriage, yours and my marriage, or Christ and the Church’s marriage, is, I believe, his direct attempt to undo the hierarchialist, patriarchal, ruler/husband-property/wife paradigm wrought by the fall and propegated by the world.

TL 2010-06-14

“In “Head over all things”, “head” is not being used in any metaphor so we look at the context and possible meanings of “kephale” (like authority, source, origin) to determine its meaning.”

In my estimation Paul is seeking to show an endless power in the passage. Authority is a weak power. Rather when we consider that Jesus is the source of everything to the Body, we then see the greatness of what Jesus did. After all, if Christ had not died on the cross we would not have salvation and would not be part of His Body. In this way ‘head over all things’ shows His preeminence, shows Christ as origin of all, shows Christ as the one through whom all things are provided, and the one who has everything we need.

Generally speaking (not directing this at anyone) IMO this human lust for seeing authority every where and being an authority is just trying vainly to provide a kind of selfish strength we can control rather than relying wholeheartedly upon God for everything we need to do the things of God and the works of God.

There is an ‘authority’ in Scriptures for believers. It is a spiritual ability or strength to do and be Christlike and help others do and be Christlike. We see this authority in leaders and those who regularly manifest a gifting of the Holy Spirit as a ministering service to the Body of Christ…. such as the five fold ministries. I really don’t think it is beneficial for us to seek for any other kind of authority, especially anything similar to the kinds of authorities the world needs to operate in because of sin.

Mark 2010-06-14

Thanks all,

Let me clarify. I’m not pushing anything here, simply looking more deeply into your own position.
No-one has answered my question 2 yet…any takers? Feel free to attach the meaning of ‘head’ to all the passages in which Paul uses it- that way we can all see how consistent people’s meanings are.

Thanks gengwell for confirming my question 1. I’m glad you see that Christ is in authority, just not in the the marriage analogy. I wonder though, if you follow this throught the OT aswell? The marriage metaphor is not new to the NT or Paul. Just think about Hosea. I think you might find it hard to come to a similar conclusion that the marriage metaphor there, gives no indication of authority. Thoughts?
As regards lexicons, i’m rather stunned at your claims that kephale never has authority attached to it. Have you overstated your case here? I find it much more reliable to listen to experts in this regard, especially one’s who publish prior to the whole comp/egal debate in recent decades. Was it you who also said BDAG is unreliable in this regard?

Lydia,
It is good to be reminded of that verse you gave (333), but we also need to be careful not to go the other way. Read 2 Peter 2, where Paul explicitly links false teachers with despising authority.

“then ?the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from trials,? and to keep the unrighteous under punishment until the day of judgment, and especially ?those who indulge in the lust of defiling passion and ?despise authority.”

Cheers

Sue 2010-06-14

“As regards lexicons, i’m rather stunned at your claims that kephale never has authority attached to it. Have you overstated your case here? I find it much more reliable to listen to experts in this regard, especially one’s who publish prior to the whole comp/egal debate in recent decades. Was it you who also said BDAG is unreliable in this regard?”

Mark,

Are you serious about pursuing this. If you are then please follow my blog. I can show you all the relevant passages in the different lexicons.

The places where kephale is listed as having authority are only those places in the NT that are under discussion. However, in order to establish the meaning of the word from other contexts, we should look at the meaning of kephale in literature outside of the NT.

First, apart from the LXX, there is no evidence prior to the NT that kephale meant leader or authority, or anything of the kind. Second, in the LXX, in the fvast majority of cases, the Hebrew word for “head” that is rosh, was translated by one of the usual Greek words for leader. Only in the highly anomolous case of Jephthah do we see the word kephale being used. This is a much debated passage.

There is no case in Greek literature prior to the NT, where the word kephale was used for a person in order to indicate that he was the authority over his own wife, family, house, tribe or nation, – other than Jephthah. Even then, he wasn’t leader of his own clan, but brought in for a certain reason.

Just saying ….

Kristen 2010-06-14

Here’s a link to Sue’s research on “kephale.” We’re indebted to you, Sue, for your intensive work on this.
http://powerscourt.blogspot.com/search?q=kephale

With regards to what the word means in Ephesians– Paul uses it 3 times in the book. The first time, Eph. 1:22, he uses it with the preposition “over” (Greek “hyper”), in reference to “all things” (with the context being that He is “above” all principalities, dominions and powers). The word “over” is not used in the head-body metaphors which are the other two uses of “kephale” in Ephesians. Since Sue’s research indicates that the word “kephale” also meant “preeminent one,” its use with the word “over” in Eph. 1:22 would seem to indicate this meaning. (Authority is IMPLIED in His being “over” all other powers, but it is not part of the actual meaning of the word “kephale.”) But the word “over” is NOT used in any of the three references, when Christ is spoken of as head “of” the body. In Eph. 4:15 we read that the members of the body “grow” in all things into Christ as the “head.” “Head” when used with “of the body” appears to carry the meaning “source of growth.”
In Eph. 5:22, then, since the word “head” is used with “of” and not “over” the body, it quite likely means the same thing it meant just a few paragraphs earlier, in 4:15– source of growth. The word is then followed with a picture of Christ, not taking the preeminent place as He does in 1:22, but giving Himself to make the church glorious. It is Christ’s sacrifice, not His preeminence, that is associated with “head of the body.” And it is not ruling the church, but making her glorious, that is in view.
If there is any meaning of “preeminence” when it comes to husbands and wives, the only logical way to read it is that husbands are being asked to emulate Christ and give themselves; and Christ gave Himself by laying down His preeminence and taking the lowest place– the place of a criminal on a cross.
I think it’s most likely that husbands are being asked to be the source of growth for their wives (nourish and cherish). But the only other possible meaning is that husbands are to lay down the preeminence given them by the social structure, and go lower in service to their wives, to raise the wives up.
There are other places in the Scriptures where Christ is spoken of as being in authority over the church. But authority over the church is not part of the meaning of the head-body metaphor, which refers to the nurturing-providing-raising up aspects of Christ’s ministry to the church. And it is THAT non-authoritative metaphor, and NOT any of the authority passages, that are used in reference to husbands and wives.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-14

It’s been a long day for me but I’ll try to get through some of the comments and questions here before bed.

Mark #324, you said:

2 metaph. anything supreme, chief, prominent. 2A of persons, master lord: of a husband in relation to his wife. 2B of Christ: the Lord of the husband and of the Church. 2C of things: the corner stone.

Note point 2 which deals with the metaphor. Are we dealing with people or things- this is important, contra Cheryl’s above argument.

While a “corner stone” is normally a “thing”, the Bible often uses the metaphor of things for Jesus. Jesus is the corner stone but He is also “the door” and “the vine”, etc.

Here is the basic thesis as i see it: In Eph 5, it cannot be authoritative since authority is not explicitly mentioned. In Eph 1 and Col, authority is not in view because it is not directly over the Church. In 1 Cor 11, the metaphor is not in view, so thus a meaning of ‘source or pre-eminance’ is employed to remove the authority otherwise prevelant.

Authority is not “removed”. It is just not added into the passage. Authority is a very serious thing and it cannot be assumed. If it isn’t given, it is not to be taken.

My question is why would any Christian want to take authority over another Christian anyway? Any thoughts?

2 side points, if anyone wishes to answer for me…
1. Is Christ in authority over the Church at all?
2. Do Church leaders have authority?

  1. Christ as God has all authority. As husband of the body, Christ shares His authority over creation with His bride who is His co-ruler.
  2. Church leaders have authority to use their gifts for the benefit of the body of Christ. They do have authority to identify and deal with false doctrine, but they do not have authority over individuals. It is the entire church who is to carry out discipline of unrepentant sinners.

Once again it is important to understand that Jesus has all authority and no one can have His authority unless it has been given to them. If it is “assumed” authority, it isn’t true authority.

Kristen 2010-06-14

I have answered Mark’s challenge when it comes to the three “head” references in Ephesians. To complete his challenge, then:

will heap burning coals on his head.” Ro 12:20 2776 – this refers to a physical head. I will use the word “noggin” whenever this is the meaning.
that Christ is the head of every man, 1Co 11:3 2776 – the context of this passage is all about who came first and who follows. “Head” in its context here means “that which came first; source.”
and the man is the head of a woman, 1Co 11:3 2776 – Again, “source.”
woman, and God is the head of Christ. 1Co 11:3 2776 Again, “source.” Since Christ (the Messiah) was sent by God the Father, God is the Source of Christ.
something on his head while praying or 1Co 11:4 2776 – the meaning is “noggin.”
or prophesying disgraces his head. 1Co 11:4 2776 – “source.” Jewish men covered their heads when they prayed to show their state of sinfulness before God. A Christian man who covered his head would be declaring that his sins were not forgiven, thus disgracing Christ, his “source.”
her head uncovered while praying or 1Co 11:5 2776 – “noggin.”
or prophesying disgraces her head 1Co 11:5 2776 – “source.” Here the man is the “source” of the woman, and by praying with her head uncovered, she dishonors her “source” because women who went uncovered were prostitutes.
as the woman whose head is shaved. 1Co 11:5 – “noggin.”
if a woman does not cover her head, 1Co 11:6 – “noggin.”
her hair cut off or her head shaved, 1Co 11:6 – “noggin.”
head shaved, let her cover her head. 1Co 11:6 – “noggin.”
ought not to have his head covered, 1Co 11:7 2776 – “noggin.”
a symbol of authority on her head, 1Co 11:10 2776 – “noggin.” (although the word “symbol” does not appear in the original Greek. The correct translation is “she should have authority on (over) her own head.”)
a woman to pray to God with her head 1Co 11:13 – “noggin.”
or again the head to the feet, 1Co 12:21 2776 – “noggin.”
He is also head of the body, the Col 1:18 2776 – “source of life/growth.”
the head over all rule and authority; Col 2:10 2776- “preeminent one.”
and not holding fast to the head, Col 2:19 – “source of life/growth.”

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-14

325 Mark,

You said:

A while ago you stated that i did not have authority over my wife because i did not ‘take’ it. Now you have just said regarding Christ…

” He never took an authority to demand love but as the perfect example of husbandly love, He initiated the sacrifice, initiated the cherishing and initiated the clinging to or joining Himself with her.”

So according to your train of thought, Christ did not ‘take’ authority. Does he therefore also NOT HAVE ANY AUTHORITY? This appears like a fallacy in your critiques…inconsistencies. Again…

No, it isn’t an inconsistency. We all know that Christ as ALL authority, so He can choose to take authority or not to take authority as God. But also as a human, He takes a human bride and this has been the issue that we have been talking about. As far as a husband’s authority, it is not given. Christ’s is given. Think about that. Christ is God, yet as a human He had to be given all authority. He didn’t assume authority. He waited until it was given to Him. But husbands cannot say that like God, they have authority. They are human just as Christ is human and they cannot take an authority that has not been given to them.

Since power over their wives is not in their hands from God, it can only belong to them if their wives turn over this power over them to their husbands. This is why not taking authority over their wives is just another proof that they do not have authority that resides within them. If their wives do not turn over authority over their person, husbands have no authority whatsoever to take from her what she has not freely given to him. If he does take it, it isn’t an authority that he has. It is a nasty four letter word that can result in a jail sentence in our country.

Think also about this. The Bible says in 1 Cor. 7:4 that the husband has authority over his wife’s body and she has authority over his. Does this mean that they can take authority over the other person’s body? No. It means that the wife cannot rightfully give her sexuality to another man because only her husband has that authority or right to her body. And he cannot give himself to another woman because she has authority over his sexuality. But in the marriage, authority doesn’t mean taking that authority when the spouse is unwilling to freely give.

Does this make sense?

Craig 2010-06-15

Gengwall @335,
You quoted
“In “Head over all things”, “head” is not being used in any metaphor so we look at the context and possible meanings of “kephale” (like authority, source, origin) to determine its meaning.”
You then said
“I missed this part – thanks TL for bringing it up.
Mark – are you purposely playing ignorant of the next verse? How can you claim “head over all things” is not part of a head/body metaphor when the very next phrase is “to the church, (v. 23) Which is his body…”?”

I (Craig) just thought something should be corrected. Mark didn’t write this, I did. I also wrote it to ask if I was correct, not to make a statement of fact. Unlike most of you here I am quite new to this subject so I may say some stupid things that don’t make sense to you. I am certainly not “playing ignorant” as you asked of Mark- my questions are from genuine ignorance! I have watched Cheryl’s DVDs and read some of the posts and comments. I can see a lot of positive points in favour of the Egal position but I still have many questions.
My reason for thinking that “head” in “head over all things” (Eph 1:22) was not the anatomical head of the metaphor is because if “all things” means “all things of this world” I have never seen an anatomical head attached to that! However, I can see that “head” of v 22 and “body” of v23 is the metaphor so “head” seemed to be being used in two different ways in the one passage. Hence my confusion and asking for help. BTW, this whole discussion has been very helpful, but I feel as though I will have to reread it a few times to digest things properly.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-15

Craig,
I value your questions and I think that others do as well. The difference between you and some others who come here is that you appear to be genuinely interested in seeing both sides and you ask questions to understand and not to condemn. Thank you for your patience with us all as we too work through these passages. Others come here to push us with questions that appear to many of us as “traps” meant to trip us up and gain the upper hand as if we are all so foolish to ever believe that men and women are spiritually equal and equal rulers of the world. When we carefully and respectfully answer questions and challenges many of the challengers will either move on or ignore the answers to mock us in other ways. Sometimes it gets tiring because we are doing our best to live as Christ wants us to live in love for the body no matter how they believe on these secondary matters, but the unloving responses and sometimes downright mockery that we get back sometime wears on us. I personally have been attacked and my name smeared because I would dare to produce DVDs on women in ministry when I should know that my place is to “be silent”. I consider it a honor to suffer for doing what I have been called to do, but honestly it stings and downright hurts when the mockery is coming from those who should be our brothers in Christ and who are also called to love those who do not believe as they do on this secondary issue. So if I or anyone else here gets a little testy at times (and I try really hard to lead out with a good example of grace under pressure but I too am human) it is because our patience is worn thin at times and we are waiting for our next infusion of grace ourselves so that we can continue to love those who disagree with us.

Now most here know that I have resisted dealing with the Scriptures on marriage because it is not a direct connection to women in ministry. However even though I resisted for a long period of time, I felt the gentle push of the Lord Jesus to go where I didn’t want to, hence the last few posts on my blog about women and submission and there will likely be a few more posts that will cover this issue. I think that if it is important to the Lord that we understand these passages and if He wants it done here as is apparent to me, then my resistance needs to go. Gengwall knows all about that resistance because he has tried to push me a number of times. So, Craig, know that I too am working through these issues myself.

My reason for thinking that “head” in “head over all things” (Eph 1:22) was not the anatomical head of the metaphor is because if “all things” means “all things of this world” I have never seen an anatomical head attached to that!

Count me in too! That’s how I see it. I understand that the body of Christ is also in the verse but “head over all things” doesn’t appear to apply to the “body” since what Christ is head over is not said to be the church in that instance and what is put under Christ is also put under our feet since we are His feet too as part of the body. I noticed that the Scripture didn’t say that “all things” were put under Christ’s head but put under His feet. I think that this makes a big difference. If all things were put under His “head”, then all things would be His body but that isn’t so. And if “head” were used as if it meant authority, then we should expect that all things would be placed under His head(ship). Instead we find that all things are placed under His feet. There is a big difference between our English meaning and the meaning in Greek when it comes to a metaphorical meaning of “head”.

I really appreciate Suzanne’s scholarship and her language skills that allows her to read and search through other the use in the term kephale in classical and Hellenistic Greek. Here is her latest blog post on kephale as authority http://powerscourt.blogspot.com/2010/06/not-slam-dunk.html Suzanne as usual does a great job in showing that the meaning of “authority” is not listed as “head” in the classical Greek lexicons.

More to come when I am awake enough. I am going back to bed. 🙂

Mark 2010-06-15

To all,

i haven’t read through all comments yet, but just have time for one brief thought.

Since all but one lexicon and other greek sources identify authority with kephale from what i’ve read, it’s hard don’t you think to disagree with the majority. BUt maybe Gengwell is correct, they all just have their biases.

But then it makes me wonder, why so many of you rely on Sue’s research and conclusions. Is she not also biased in her research? Just seems like the very argument you want to use against the majority of scholars in this area is a little flawed. Why do you trust Sue over others? IS it some bias of your own to stick with your own interpretation?
Let’s be realistic about this. Give me a better reason to ignore the majority of scholars. Note also my point about looking at people, pre egal/comp debate- i think you would get a much fairer response.

Sue,
I’m very serious on this topic and i’ve read your research before, but i’m still not convinced. The whole argument falls to pieces regarding the LXX, since there are instances when kephale is used to mean authority or leader- you may dismiss them, but they are there. Like i have challenged you before, show me one use in the LXX where kephale is meant to translate ‘source’? Let’s get things in perspective! Why are we choosing to select a meaning that is not related to human relationships (i.e source), but not only that, it is used as the plural not singular. Now i know you don’t like source, but what is the alternative, and how does that make sense of the biblical passages?
Would you argue that the majority of scholars in this field of your’s are simply biased? WHy should we believe you that your research is not biased more so than others?

Thanks

TL 2010-06-15

” Since all but one lexicon and other greek sources identify authority with kephale from what i’ve read,”

Mark,

First I don’t think that is accurate. Secondly, we must take note of how they are listing their definitions. Most of them do NOT go into cultural uses of the era. That takes a lot of research. Most lexicons simply list how it is often translated in the Bible. And of course we know they are also not exhaustive in their research there either but simply choose the couple most popular translations. That method is not accurately researching the language usage. Liddell & Scott and and at least one other source look at the common usage of the word in the original language and list those instances instead of just what Bible scholars have chosen.

”The whole argument falls to pieces regarding the LXX, since there are instances when kephale is used to mean authority or leader- you may dismiss them, but they are there.”

If you take each instance on their own context, you’ll see that any authority noted is found in the context and not the word itself. And then let’s say there are two instances where it is questionable. Do you think that two out of 180 uses sets a precedence?

”WHy should we believe you that your research is not biased more so than others?”

Sue is not by any stretch of the imagination the only Christian who studies languages (or the only non Christian) that is aware of the discrepancies that Sue has noted. Several Christian authors have written on this subject.

Mark 2010-06-15

Sue,

I admire your honestly regarding your bias. I think that is helpful for all to understand, so that when comments are made rejecting the BDAG for example because of bias, one can see that such an argument is not really an argument at all. But let me ask you this, how do you know you are correct? You told us your motivation- you “want to live”. Are you therefore manipulating the text to suit your agenda? How can you know? And what if your wrong- what then?

The problem i have with Liddell, is that it is much more of a broad survey dealing with an enormous amount of greek literature, most of which is irrelevant to the Koine Greek period. However, to deduce therefore that such a lexicon is more accurate i think is flawed. It is much more accurate to look at the period in question rather than such a broad expanse. It’s like trying to understand what the term ‘awesome’ means from a linguistic period covering an enormous amount of years. Considering it probably is used in different ways every 10 years or so, it would be hard to have an accurate picture from the broad analysis.

Indeed many people are biased, but what makes you think the majority of Greek scholars would be pushing for a comp position? You would have to be assuming that all these publishers and editors are patriarchal advocates…but of course that is just an assumption based on your own bias. Sure someone like Grudem is of course doing that, but the BDAG lexicon was in print before this dabate even began.

Where do we draw the line as to which lexicon to trust? Are all BDAG entries wrong and therefore anything we need to know about Koine Greek and the Bible ought to come from secular sources? To me, it seems like you and many others would be more than happy to take 99.99% BDAG entries seriously, excluding the ones that clash with egal theology. So it’s no so much that they are wrong, but probably more so, that our contemporary readings of passages are wrong.

TL,

My statement was not wrong at all, because i qualified it by saying what i have read. Yesterday i had a look through our college library at all the greek sources availiable. All bar one confirmed what i said- the one exception was Liddell (which to re-enforce again is a lexicon that covers an enormous time period which would be hard to give definitions accurately). Now i also looked at theological word books etc and not just lexicons. They all came to the same conclusion. So either they are all wrong, and the church has been wrong for 2000 years (which of course could be possible since the church is fallible), or our modern debate is an attempt to read back into the text what we want it to say. We see this all the time when ‘new’ theologies pop there head up.

Let me finish with this at least. Reject kephale as authority all you want- i won’t agree but that is ok. But at least give a decent alternative. ‘Source’ is not a good alternative. Source is used in plural forms not singular, and as Sue herself told us, she does not accept that translation. ‘Source’ not only is an impossible alternative, it doesn’t make sense either. I am not the source of my wife because 1. it is singular and 2. she wasn’t created out of me, the same way the church was created out of Christ.

Sue 2010-06-15

“How can you know? And what if your wrong- what then?”

I can’t know any more than you can know. I make decisions guided my moral guidelines, not on a gendered line of command. I believe that this is healthier and leads to less harm and more righteousness.

If I am wrong, I have simply modeled that it is best to make a decision based on sound moral judgement, rather than on the basis of gender. Maleness is no more moral than femaleness, so I don’t need to worry about being morally compromised because I am a woman.

Regarding lexicons, I don’t really trust any lexicons. I am just trying to discuss what is in them. The basic component of a lexicon is not the meanings listed, but the evidence or corroborating examples. There are no examples in the Liddell Scott or Woodhouse indicating that kephale meant “authority.” In the BDAG and the TDNT the examples given to denote superior rank are mostly from the NT. That is using something to prove itself so we have to set them aside.

In BDAG, the example listed as Hs. is Shepherd of Hermas, and follows the NT, and could be influenced by Latin, since it was published in Rome, written at the same time in Latin. Caput did mean “head of the household” in Latin, but does not normally mean that in Greek. Kephale, as head of a household, occurs only once in all of Greek literature in Hermas, as cited in BDAG. Is that what you were referring to? It is the very oddity of this expression in Greek, the fact that it is not natural Greek that makes it stand out.

The truth is that to me the scriptures are not always clear. This is acknowledged by Dr. Grudem who believes that they are interpreted by the spirit. Really, who can test the spirit of someone else. For some people it is in their interest to invest superior authority in men, there is so much at stake. For others, it is important that each person has equal moral authority, and takes equal responsibility for their own actions, for the way they care for their own family. I stand with that, that each of us has both equal responsibility before God, and equal authority.

Mark 2010-06-15

Sue,

But again there are more problems. You told us that your motivation was to live and not be under male authority, and know you relate that to ‘moral guidelines’. I don’t see the connection!

I could equally argue that i am governed by moral guidelines- that really means nothing. What we should be governed by is the Word of God- that is the only place where true morals can be formed, otherwise they are not morals at all. You can’t approach the Bible with a 21st century ‘moral guideline framework’- it doesn’t work that way- it should be the opposite.

I think your first answer seemed far more honest and open. Being under authority is not accepted nowadays, and in some places rightly so, but i don’t think you can only connect your view as morally right and the comp not.

Again regards lexicons, if you don’t trust any, how can you possibly give any explanation for anything. It seems like you have just undercut your own research- why would i trust you? How do i know you aren’t just making up your own terminology or meanings if they are not inline with other relevant scholars.

I think your insistence to disregard BDAG is unwarranted. They cover the koine period as their focus. The question we need to ask is whether their definitions fit the context. Of course they do, they are just repulsive to our generation- that’s the only difference. Does ‘source’ fit the context? In many places not at all- that’s why many egals switch between source and ‘beginning’ and ‘preeminance’, which are totally different meanings. And then we need to ask whether the few lexicons that offer another alternatives can rightly be considered as covering the relevant time frame accurately.

I think we need to steer away from the open hermenuetic mind field. There are not 2 possible meanings to Paul’s teachings. I would have thought that the research you have put into the New Testament, you would have realised the amount of divergents, ducking and re-interpretation of passages, words, meanings goes into the egal position. If it was ‘so obvious’ why did the early church miss it- the natural greek speakers. Why aren’t the fathers writings in line with the egal position? Did they misunderstand the meanings of words from their own time?

This is why i struggle. Many egals claim that the church has just been patriarchal, but yet then claim that the very words of the New Testament shout for egalitarianism. How can the two co-incide. Either they were just patriarchs, or they misunderstood their own language. I don’t see how you can argue the two.

Sue 2010-06-15

Mark,

If a woman is “under authority” then she does not relate to the moral guidelines contained in God’s word in the same way as a man does. There is always a man to tell her what the morals taught in the Bible are.

I am simply saying that a woman has the same responsibility and authority to follow morality as taught in God’s word as a man does. A man must care for his family, so must a woman, and so on. A woman can never ever compromise what is best for her family because her husband has some kind of authority over her on the basis of his gender. That is wrong.

Since men are not more moral than women, sometimes the wife does see a situation in a different moral light than her husband and she needs to follow that. It may relate to the health and safety of the children, to their well being, it may relate to obligations to others. A woman has exactly the same moral responsibility before God that a man does.

If you simply mean that in situations that have no moral component, a man should have his way, I do not see any justification for this. It seems a rather selfish way for men to organise life, but less harmful that having a man supersede moral decisions.

Regarding lexicons, when you read BDAG, you see the words “of the father as head of the family” Hs 7, 3 and you trust that. But I have read Shepherd of Hermas (Hs) in Greek, so I have to think about whether this is an example which informs us as to Paul’s intent. In my opinion, it is not. As I said on my blog, “it is not a slam dunk.”

Regarding those who duck and twist, complementarian scholars equal in every way all other interpreters. As you know, Dr. Grudem has made the claim that God is subordinate to man in the moment in which he helps man. This is in the interest of proving that woman as the ezer kenegdo, the “help meet” is subordinate to man. That is a duck with a quack!

If you would like a list of complementarian inconsistencies, I would very much like to tell you when it will be published but it would be a book of 600 pages at least! I can’t really say that egals are much better.

I do not regard history as much help. It was not until the 1980’s that the law regarded marital rape as a crime. Does that mean that the weight of history demonstrates a greater morality? Hardly!

However, I definitely believe that in the law of Christ we have a firm foundation. It is the most repeated commandment in the scripture, to love the Lord your God, and treat fellow humans as you would be treated. It seems so simple to me, so straightforward.

I remember crying when I realized that a “neighbour” could refer to a woman also. I was 50 years old before that concept had ever occurred to me. I had never had that thought before, that I as a woman, should be treated as a fellow human being by a man.

Mark 2010-06-15

that was for Kay sorry

Sue 2010-06-15

Mark,

Sadly you have not missed something. It took me a long time to realize that many of the citations in support of the subordination of women are not accurate. That really was a lot of work. I am a detail person.

I don’t disregard lexicons, but I read them in such a different way than you do. If we take this conversation up again, I would like you to cite a line, quote something from a lexicon or a page or something, and then we can talk about a specific detail. Right now, I really do not know what you are referring to.

It is true that men have been preeminent over women, in general for a long time. And this has lead to many bad things. There have been no laws to protect women from marital rape or other violence until very recently, and the Bible does not provide these laws either. We cannot simply say that the way things were was altogether good.

I don’t actually ignore the church fathers. For example, this is Cyril of Alexandria, referring to Adam,

“Therefore of our race he became first “kephale”, which is “arche”, and was of the earth and earthy. Since Christ was named the second Adam, he has been placed as “kephale”, which is “arche,” of those who through him have been formed anew unto him unto immortality through sanctification in the spirit. Therefore he himself our “arche,” which is “kephale,” has appeared as a human being: indeed, he, being by nature God, has a “kephale,” the Father in heaven. For, being by nature God the Word, he has been begotten from Him. Because “kephale” means “arche,” He established the truth for those who are wavering in their mind that man is the “kephale” of woman, for she was taken out of him. Therefore one Christ and Son and Lord, the one having as “kephale” the Father in heaven, being God by nature, became for us a “kephale” accordingly because of his kinship according to the flesh.”

The church fathers do not have one single interpretation for kephale. In this passage, kehpale seems to mean “source.” It is possible that Paul meant “source.” But really, I don’t know the answer, I just know that if gender is put before Biblical morality, we are in deep trouble.

Kristen 2010-06-15

Mark, you cited this with regards to church authority:
“Tit 2:15 Declare these things; exhort and rebuke with all authority. Let no one disregard you.”
If male authority is so clear and obvious, why is there nothing equivalent or even similar in the New Testament with regards to husbands? Why are husbands never told “lead your wives with all authority” or anything like this?
In 1 Peter 5:1, Peter says to the elders of the church, “Shepherd the flock of God which is among you, serving as overseers, not by constraint but willingly, not for dishonest gain but eagerly, not as being lords over those entrusted to you, but being examples to the flock. . .”
If husbandly authority is so obvious and clear, why are there no clear words like this to husbands? How easy would it be for Peter to say, “You husbands, lead your wives as their authority, not by constraint but willingly, not to your own advantage but for their benefit, not lording it over them, but being examples.” In a world where male privilege was a given, such words were certainly expected. And yet he never says them. Neither does Paul. Neither does any writer of Scripture. Instead it’s all “nourish and cherish as your own body,” “love as Christ did when He gave Himself,’ “treat her with respect as a fellow-heir of the grace of life,” etc.
Notice in 1 Tim 3:4, when qualifications for church leadership are given, an overseer is to have his children in submission. Not a word there about having his spouse in submission. Why? Again, wifely subjection by the husband was the expected norm. And yet it is omitted from the passage. To us, this is hardly noticeable. To the original readers, it would have screamed.
This isn’t the only indication that Paul and Peter were saying Christian marriages weren’t supposed to look like the patriarchal marriages of the world at that time– but it’s a big indication. Paul and Peter were teaching a new dynamic existing within Christian marriage, in which male and female as joint heirs with Christ, adopted sons, a royal priesthood, would stop relating to each other under the old “he’s in charge, I’m subordinate” paradigm. Misunderstanding the historical background and the shared cultural assumptions of the time, leads people to mistake the assumptions, for the commands of God.

Mark 2010-06-15

Sue,

You’ve lost me again. Let me begin by saying that BDAG in my opinion is a useful resource on this topic. Under point 2 for kephale, BDAG seperates between ‘people’ and things. Under people they give ‘superior rank’, under ‘things’ they give ‘uppermost part, extremity, end point.

As regards engaging with you…here you go. You cite Cyril, but fail to mention that arche also means authority aswell as source. So when kephale/arche are in view, authority is not an excluded possibility. Likewise, source is a possible option, however the unambiguous nature still looms over this text.
It is interesting that you are following in the footsteps of Kroeger who used this same text, and had the same points told to her. What you and her need to do is give a non-ambiguous citation.

In favour of the comp position is this point…numerous texts that are unambigous. For example Chrysostom
Homily 26 on 1 Corinthians
” Husband as head and ruler. Consider nevertheless that she is a woman, the weaker vessel, whereas thou art a man. For therefore wert thou ordained to be ruler; and wert assigned to her in place of a head (kephale) that thou mightest bear with the weakness of her that is set under thee.”

Again…
Homily 3 on Ephesians
” Christ as head of the body, ruling over it, and head (kephale) of all things. “Which is His Body.” In order then that when you hear of the Head (Kephale) you may not conceive the notion of supremacy only, but also of consolidation, and that you may behold Him not as supreme Ruler only, but as Head of a body. “The fulness
of Him that filleth all in all” he says… . Let us reverence our Head, let us reflect of what a Head we are the body,—a Head, to whom all things are put in subjection”

There are several other citations for unambiguous use of kephale linked in with subjection, ruler, authority with Chrysostom alone, let alone other texts.

Please continue to show me unambiguous citations to support your position.

Sue 2010-06-15

“Under people they give ’superior rank’,”

Yes, that is what I have been discussing. This is supported by the example from Shepherd of Hermas, 2nd century AD. But this is a very isolated example, and following the NT. It also could be influenced by Latin. There is no example in typical native Greek of kephale as “superior rank.”

“You cite Cyril, but fail to mention that arche also means authority aswell as source.” Do you have some evidence that arche means authority. The passage stresses kinship rather than authority.

“What you and her need to do is give a non-ambiguous citation.”

I am not trying to prove that source is the meaning. I am simply indicating that the church fathers are not monolithic. I disagree with Chrysostom.

It is simple. He thought that women were naturally weaker, and that it was self evident that women were under the husband as ruler. But he also taught many other things about marriage, that obedience on the part of the wife, was balanced by desire on the part of the husband, that this created a balance between the two, a mutuality. I am not sure that he is right on that.

I don’t think either of us can prove our position. I do know that the notion of male authority is in contradiction to the law of Christ, and needs to be examined rather seriously. I also think that compassion alone should motivate men to treat women as fellow human beings. This is not something that I have met very often in the church, but more often from non-Christians.

Cheryl Schatz 2010-06-15

I just got started in reading the comments and received wise advice from Craig to shift the comments over to a new post so that we don’t lose the comments once again. I have started a discussion post #3 here http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2010/06/15/eph-5-22-post-3/ I will shortly disable comments on this post so please move over to the new post with your comments. I will keep doing this every four hundred or so comments so that I keep the blog software happy. Thanks folks!

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Ephesians 5 Authority & Submission Women in Leadership
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