gengwall

I will thank Paul [;-)] for this revelation: the use of the perfect in vs. 14. My quick google on the Greek perfect yielded this explanation:

The perfect tense expresses perfective action. Perfective action involves a present state which has resulted from a past action. The present state is a continuing state; the past action is a completed action.

How is it that almost all bible translations then put the transgression in the past as a completed action? Are they that biased, or that sloppy? A quick version review on blueletterbible.com yields only two translations that get it pretty right: the ASV (“has fallen into transgression”) and Hebrew Names version (“has fallen into disobedience”). (Young’s is also close.)

This is a huge deal because it sheds whole new light on the passage. Even my trusty NASB seemingly can’t be trusted too far when it comes to 1 Tim 2:11-15.

So, Cheryl, permit a paraphrase and let’s see if I got it right (not withstanding my questions in the previous post.)

Timothy had written Paul about a particular man and woman in the church. In particular, she had been deceived, like Eve, and was currently engaged in false teaching. In vs. 11, Paul addresses that issue, in what probably in the original letter was a new section. Here is what I think he is saying.

Let that woman learn in silence and all subjection, for I don’t permit a woman (so deceived) to teach, nor to (even) usurp her man, but to stay silent. You see, Adam was first formed, then Eve, and Adam was not deceived. Now, this woman, having been deceived (like Eve), is being sinful. Never the less, she will be saved, because of the birth of The One, if she and he show faith, charity, holiness, and sobriety.