pinklight
2009-03-26
‘Besides you will notice that I didn’t say that “God doesn’t allow…” I said “I am not allowing a woman to teach or authentein a man”.’
By what power or authority does any mortal man have to create or give a universal law for God? God did not speak those words directly, Paul did not quote him and Paul did not say it was a command or law of God’s or the Lord’s. And by what kind of thinking and power or authority do any mortals have to give any mortal man such power and authority?
I know that many think that since Paul wrote it and his writings are inspired that therefore it must mean that what Paul wrote is a universal law of God’s. If this kind of logic were true then everything Paul wrote could be taken as universal law, but those who would say he wrote such a law in the 1 Tim 2 passage also pick and choose which other things that Paul wrote are universaly binding and which things are not.
‘It’s inspired therefore it is universal law’ is nonsense.
It wouldn’t matter even if Paul or anyone else stopped all women from teaching since mere mortals, including apostles do not have the power or authority to create universal law for God. And God’s laws are ALWAYS said to be his in the scriptures. If a law is God’s then we find him speaking, being quoted or the law is said to be his.
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