pinklight

‘When ‘she’ in verse 15 refers back to ‘the woman’ in verse 14 it is not referring to the woman *as* Eve or *as* the woman herself but rather the woman as the representative of all women collectively.’

And this is because why? What is written IN the passage itself that indicates this? Absolutely nothing. These are mere assertions.

‘Using the singular ‘she’ is fine grammatically because ‘the woman’ in verse 14 is singular, but it should be understood that all women are meant because, conceptually, ‘the woman’ stands for all women. The plural ‘they’ in verse 15 refers to all women collectively.’

Conceptually ‘the woman’ should be understood to be standing for all women because why? What is actualy written in the passage to indicate this or what spells it out? What evidence is there for saying that ‘the woman’ represents all women and ‘they’ refers to all women? There is no evidence within the passage itself to support your assertions.

The assertions above come completely from the imagination and not the text itself. On the other hand, there is no way to deny the least number of women, which is 1, and there is no way to produce as a fact, a larger number than 1 from the passage itself. If you look over the passage with a careful eye and keep within it’s written boundaries, this fact cannot be missed.