gengwall

“Why would Moses say things differently? Well, he’s Hebrew, comes to mind. Plus, he may be trying to be more explicit on what was actually said.”
How is being more cryptic being more explicit? “The man and his woman” and “both” are explicit references to Adam and Eve. There is no other construction we could derive from that. “ha’adam”, as we have been discussing here, variety of meanings. The immediate context both before – where it was NOT used to describe them both – and after – where it is used to describe just Adam (vs. 12) – plus the fact that Adam alone responded is substantial evidence that it means just Adam in vs. 9. If it doesn’t, Moses is confusing the situation by using ha’adam in vs. 9, not making the situation more explicit.

“Can you imagine God saying , “Hey, human and woman”. Seems more reasonable since God named THEM Adham/Human, that since there were not any ‘first’ names given yet, that God would just call out Human (which included a plural) and wait for them to answer.”

You continue to treat Genesis 3:9 as a quote from God. It is not. It is a description of God’s action. We have no idea what God’s words were. We also are not privy to any direct conversation God had with Adam where God uses ‘adam in any form, so we don’t know if God had yet used it as a proper name. Frankly, we have no idea how God addressed the first couple either individually or together.

“Seems more reasonable since God named THEM Adham/Human, that since there were not any ‘first’ names given yet, that God would just call out Human (which included a plural) and wait for them to answer.”
OK – if this is how God addressed them as a couple, how did he address them individually? If he were calling out to just Adam, how would he do it?

And really there are no qualifications that God was speaking to ONLY the man. Why would God do that since both disobeyed Him. ??? I don’t know. This makes sense to me.
But there are – all the surrounding text. There is qualifiaction that God was not speaking to them as a couple because in 3:9 Moses doesn’t use “couple” grammer as he did in 3:7-8, and because Adam responds and nothing in the text indicates that his solo response was unexpected or inappropriate. Yours is an argument from silence.

And although both disobeyed Him, they did not disobey Him in the same manner or degree. As has been discussed here at length, Adam’s was a direct, intentional act of disobedience. Eve’s was a coerced act of disobedience. Plus, as Cheryl points out above, Adam was the watchman who failed at his post. What makes sense to me is that God would approach the one who failed more seriously and did so more deliberatly first. Consider if these were your children. Which would you question first in a similar circumstance? If this were the army or a business, I can assure you that Adam would be called on the carpet first.