Cheryl Schatz

Susanna,

You said:

But if ‘adam refers to humans in general in Gen 1.26, how can it refer to only Adam in Gen 5.1, especially when the same word (‘adam) is defined as being male and female in 5.2?

Adam in Genesis 1:26 is matched with the plural pronoun so we can be assured that it is meant as mankind. Adam in Genesis 5:1 can only refer to one man since he (singular) is matched to his genealogy, Adam as father and his death. Verse 2 is again attached to the plural with male and female. This is why we need to follow the Hebrew grammar with close attention because ‘adam has several meanings and when the Hebrew goes back and forth between these several meanings it can get confusing.

Whereas Gen 1.27 uses the singular pronoun with the word “the human,” in Gen 5.1-5 ‘adam (human) is used with both singular and plural pronouns.

Again this is about the switch between the one man and between the meaning of mankind. We must follow the switch between the pronouns to understand what is being referenced.

This is found because all of humankind is created in the likeness of God (hence the singular) but this humankind is also male and female (hence the plural).

I disagree. In Genesis 1:26 God made His intention known that the image would be in “them”. With this understanding we then go to the image in the man and the image in male and female. The female is in no way left out of the image of God.

The word ‘adam signifies always “human.” Hebrew uses other words when speaking of persons in general, such as nephesh (soul), ‘enowsh (mortal) etc.

No it does not always mean humankind. It can and often does mean a specific person. Let me quote from a few commentaries to show that Genesis 5:1 is talking about a specific man.

5:1–32 Adam … Noah. The genealogy connects Adam to the Noahic family which not only survived the Flood, but also became first in God’s re-creation. Two recurring phrases carry redemption history forward: “ … and he had sons and daughters,” “ … and he died.
The MacArthur Study Bible

5:1–20 The first list of “begots.” After fathering a number of sons and daughters, Adam died at age 930. Genealogies such as in these verses were important to ancient peoples to establish family relationships, privileges, and responsibilities.
Willmington’s Bible handbook (10).

E. From Adam to Noah (5:1–32). In a genealogy stretching over ten generations, the lineage from Adam to Noah is traced. Only in the last section does this vertical genealogy become a horizontal one (v. 32).
In the description of each generation, the same literary structure is followed: (1) the age of the father at the birth of the firstborn; (2) the name of the firstborn; (3) how many years the father lived after the birth of this son; (4) a reference to the fathering of other children; (5) the father’s total lifespan.
Evangelical commentary on the Bible.

Why, then, should there be these two different forms of expression, and only these two—Genesis 5:1 and Matthew 1:1—exceptions to the usual form? … In the first book—“The book of the generations of Adam”—are enrolled the names of the fallen descendants of the first man; in the second—“The book of the generation of Jesus Christ”—are inscribed the names of all who have been redeemed by sovereign grace. One is the Book of Death; the other is the Lamb’s Book of Life.
Gleanings in Genesis (72)

I think that should be sufficient to show that ‘adam in Genesis 5:1 is referring to the one man Adam.

You said:

Why is the first human called “the human”? Because he does not have another name; he is simply a human, contrasted to the animals …He is not called Adam yet…

“The human” is Adam. Eve is never called “the human” but “the woman”. To say that “the Adam” is not one particular man but just “a human” seems to me that you are trying desperately to deny that Adam can be a term for one man. I wonder why you have to deny that?

In 3.9 we find that God calls ha’adam (the human).

Gen 3:9-13
Then the LORD God called to the human (ha’adam) and said to him, “Where are you?” 10 So he said, “I heard Your voice in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked; and I hid myself.” 11 And He said, “Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten from the tree of which I commanded you that you should not eat?” 12 Then the man (ha’adam) said, “The woman (‘ishshah) whom You gave to be with me, she gave me of the tree, and I ate.” 13 And the LORD God said to the woman, “What is this you have done?” The woman said, “The serpent deceived me, and I ate.”

This passage is the reason comps argue that God called only the man and that he had given the commandment only to the man, whom he is holding responsible.

The fact that God called only the man here cannot be used to prove that God gave only the commandment to one person since Genesis 1 proves that He spoke to “them”. Are you denying that “the human” is Adam and “you” is singular not plural?

When God responded to Adam’s words He asked is Adam had eaten from the tree that God had commanded him (you singular) not to eat. Even though God first of all talked to Adam and called him to account first, does not mean that the commandment was given to Adam alone since Genesis 1 clearly states that God spoke to “them”. However God is specifically speaking to Adam here and Adam first heard the commandment alone. It isn’t a contradiction at all.

My internet was down for awhile. I wasn’t able to see the other comments sent to me. I will address them now instead before going on with Susanna’s comments.