Only Adam
Was it Adam alone who brought sin into the world. Was it Adam alone who was kicked out of the garden
Date: 2009-12-04
URL: https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2009/12/04/only-adam/

Adam alone?
Was it Adam alone who brought sin into the world? Was it Adam alone who was kicked out of the garden?
These are some of the issues about “Adam alone” that have brought some lively discussion on another post at https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2009/11/12/mark-head-as-authority/ and since the comments are now at 446, I am going to move our discussion over to this post so that we can continue with what will likely be many more passionate arguments and comments here. For those want to follow the original source of the discussion that pertains to this new post, the comments from #238 and on at the above link start the movement towards questions and comments about “only Adam” and these thoughts are important for what will continue here on this post.
Susanna,
You said:
the comps are arguing that only Adam was called by God. This is the central argument which supports the beliefs that
- The man was created to lead the woman
- The woman was never given the commandment by God
- The man taught the commandment to the woman
- Therefore the woman is not allowed to teach a man
I think that it is very helpful to understand that we can argue our point of view without supporting their error. If it can be shown that my point of view completely supports the egalitarian understanding by tying in the OT and the NT without contradiction, would you be willing to entertain the view?
I am going through your comments one by one and I haven’t read through them all yet, but I assume that you haven’t dealt with the fact that God called “the human” as the one man Adam, first by saying “Where are you” You is most definitely singular. The grammar makes it impossible to argue that God called both Adam and Eve but only Adam answered. God was speaking to one person at a time and it appears that both Adam and Eve knew which singular “you” God was referring to, even if we don’t have the name that God called him as we just have the question.
Of you points 1 – 4 above, the first three points of the comp position are easily shown to be additions to the text. The fourth point is therefore an unspoken and faulty conclusion based on reading into the text and prejudice against women.
The other reason why I feel I must reject the construction in which ha’adam refers only to the first man is found in Gen 5. Let’s compare Gen 1.26-27 with Gen 5.1-5
I didn’t say that ha’adam refers only to the first man. I did say that unless there is a plural construction, the default position of the definite noun with singular pronouns is that it is referring to the first man Adam. The plural pronouns make it very clear that “man” (without the definite article) in Genesis 1:26 is “them” male and female and not just the one man. Man without the definite article can be a particular man, all of mankind, or a particular group of people. The context and the pronouns are essential for us to understand the meaning.
Gen 5:1-5
This is the book of the genealogy of Adam (‘Adam). In the day that God created man (‘adam), He made him (‘otow) in the likeness of God. 2 He created them male and female, and blessed them and called them Mankind (‘adam) in the day they were created. 3 And Adam (‘Adam) lived one hundred and thirty years, and begot a son in his own likeness, after his image, and named him Seth. 4 After he begot Seth, the days of Adam (‘Adam) were eight hundred years; and he had sons and daughters. 5 So all the days that Adam (‘Adam) lived were nine hundred and thirty years; and he died.For your hypothesis to work, ‘adam should refer only to Adam in Gen 5.1 since it is singular and follows directly after the mentioning of Adam himself.
In Genesis 5, God did not name male and female “the man” but simply “man” which is the generic term for human. The context is mankind in verse Genesis 5:2.
What is the context of “man” in verse Genesis 5:1? It is not plural but singular. Is God telling us that this is a history of the descendants of mankind (general) or of the descendants of one man? Genealogy is always specific to the person.
genealogies = account of a man and his descendants
Enhanced Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon
The Amplified Bible renders Genesis 5:1 this way:
THIS IS the book (the written record, the history) of the generations of the offspring of Adam. When God created man, He made him in the likeness of God.
The term Adam is used for one person and man is used for mankind.
The Word Biblical Commentary shows that Adam the personal name is the intention of Genesis 5:1 and I agree:
Nowhere in chaps. 1–3 does God give mankind a name, although “man,” literally, “the man”, is often mentioned. But from 4:25 to 5:6 the anarthrous form “Adam,” the proper name, is used. However, such a translation here is jarring in English: the generic “man” runs more smoothly and most commentators adopt the generic term here. The problem really lies in our transliteration of the Hebrew names: if we used “Man” for “Adam” and “man” for “mankind,” our translation could oscillate between “Man” and “man” as easily as Hebrew does… in vv 1 and 3 the personal name “Adam,” “Man,” is clearly intended…
Word Biblical Commentary : Genesis 1-15. Word Biblical Commentary (126).
So in Genesis 5:1 “Adam” is a specific human (singular) and in verse 2 “man” is plural as male and female. In verse 3 “Adam” is singular again (without the definite article) yet it is also clearly referring to one man, Adam as he is named as a “father” and in verse 5 his age of death is given. These things can only be said about the one man Adam and not about Eve the woman.
I agree that it isn’t easy because the Hebrew goes back and forth between the singular and the plural, but we can follow it through by the context. Even though Adam (the first man) is said to be in the image of God in Genesis 5:1, he is not the only one who is in the image of God since Genesis 1:26 has already told us that God originally planned to create “them” in His image.
I will carry on in the next comment.
“Why would Moses say things differently? Well, he’s Hebrew, comes to mind. Plus, he may be trying to be more explicit on what was actually said.”
How is being more cryptic being more explicit? “The man and his woman” and “both” are explicit references to Adam and Eve. There is no other construction we could derive from that. “ha’adam”, as we have been discussing here, variety of meanings. The immediate context both before – where it was NOT used to describe them both – and after – where it is used to describe just Adam (vs. 12) – plus the fact that Adam alone responded is substantial evidence that it means just Adam in vs. 9. If it doesn’t, Moses is confusing the situation by using ha’adam in vs. 9, not making the situation more explicit.
“Can you imagine God saying , “Hey, human and woman”. Seems more reasonable since God named THEM Adham/Human, that since there were not any ‘first’ names given yet, that God would just call out Human (which included a plural) and wait for them to answer.”
You continue to treat Genesis 3:9 as a quote from God. It is not. It is a description of God’s action. We have no idea what God’s words were. We also are not privy to any direct conversation God had with Adam where God uses ‘adam in any form, so we don’t know if God had yet used it as a proper name. Frankly, we have no idea how God addressed the first couple either individually or together.
“Seems more reasonable since God named THEM Adham/Human, that since there were not any ‘first’ names given yet, that God would just call out Human (which included a plural) and wait for them to answer.”
OK – if this is how God addressed them as a couple, how did he address them individually? If he were calling out to just Adam, how would he do it?
And really there are no qualifications that God was speaking to ONLY the man. Why would God do that since both disobeyed Him. ??? I don’t know. This makes sense to me.
But there are – all the surrounding text. There is qualifiaction that God was not speaking to them as a couple because in 3:9 Moses doesn’t use “couple” grammer as he did in 3:7-8, and because Adam responds and nothing in the text indicates that his solo response was unexpected or inappropriate. Yours is an argument from silence.
And although both disobeyed Him, they did not disobey Him in the same manner or degree. As has been discussed here at length, Adam’s was a direct, intentional act of disobedience. Eve’s was a coerced act of disobedience. Plus, as Cheryl points out above, Adam was the watchman who failed at his post. What makes sense to me is that God would approach the one who failed more seriously and did so more deliberatly first. Consider if these were your children. Which would you question first in a similar circumstance? If this were the army or a business, I can assure you that Adam would be called on the carpet first.
Susanna,
You said:
He is given the name because he was made of ‘adamah (ground) just as Eve is named Chawah (from chay) because she was to become the mother of all living.
Then could you explain to me if you understand that only Adam was made from the ground, why you believe that Eve is part of “the Adam” in Gen. 3:22-24 when the one who is spoken of is said to be sent out to till the ground that he was made from? Where is Eve in this? What isn’t it plural and why isn’t Eve said to be sent out to till the ground that Adam was made from? Do you see how this causes problems to your view?
If ha’adam refers only to the man in Gen 3.22-4.1, then only the first man was created to till (‘abad) the land because he was taken from the ground (ha’adamah), and women are excluded from farming.
The hard work was a punishment because of the curse on the earth. It doesn’t mean that the woman cannot work with the soil but that the primary hard work dealing with the curse that he caused was put onto the man not the woman.
According to Gen 2 it was humankind in itself that was created specifically to till or care for the land, not only the first man since the reason for the creation of the human was that there was not yet a human who would care for the land. In Gen 4:2 we find that Cain was a farmer.
While this may be correct in the original perfect and weedless earth, the place of hard work amongst the weeds was specifically only forced upon the man.
You said:
To summarize: to create a distinction between Gen 1.26 and 1.27 one must begin with Gen 2, for the text itself does not create such a distinction since both ‘adam and ha’adam refer to the same humankind which is being created.
No, I do not agree. To see no distinction between Genesis 1:26 and 27 one must make the singular and plural to be the same thing and this is linguistically in error. I choose to not deny the inspired grammar but to embrace it as correct and work with it as it is. My interpretation must submit to the grammar, not force the grammar to fit into my exegesis by equating a singular pronoun to be the same as a plural one. I think that would be torturing the text and cutting off what it actually says instead of taking the natural grammar as accurate.
This is confirmed by Gen 5, where ‘adam appears with both the singular and plural pronoun.
Genesis 5 has the singular and plural only because it is talking about one person and then two persons. Genesis 5 never makes a singular to be the same as a plural. Rather it is singular + another singular = plural.
Throughout the Old Testament both ‘adam and ha’adam are found with both plural and singular pronouns wherefore it is impossible to argue that ha’adam refers only to the first man in Genesis 1-3 while ‘adam refers to “humankind.”
First of all I am not saying that ha’adam refers only to the first man and I am not saying that ‘adam refers always to mankind. ha’adam can be plural when plural nouns are used and ‘adam can be singular when a single human is meant or when a collective singular unit is meant. I think you are misunderstanding my position and this is why you are having a hard time with this.
If we nevertheless use the argument, we must also allow the comps to use the argument in which God calls humankind collectively a man in Gen 1.27
In Genesis 1:27 the term is “the man” and the definite with the singular pronoun is one man. I would call them to account with the exact grammar as I have with you.
What I would like to know if how God could have written the grammar if He really did only mean one man? How would He have written it differently?
wherefore the man was called to lead; that God gave the commandment only to the man in Gen 2, wherefore a woman is not allowed to teach a man for it is the man’s job to teach the woman; that God called only the man to account in Gen 3 wherefore the woman is not allowed to lead since women are not held accountable, men are; and lastly, that women should follow men even when they are punished for their sin and the women themselves are innocent (since did not Eve set the example of wifely obedience by following Adam?) You may not affirm even one of these, but if you see ha’adam as referring only to the first man in order to expel only the man from the garden, you are left without a defense against complementarian theology.
How did you come to the conclusion that I would have no defense?
1. Man is never called to “lead”
2. God did give the command to Adam before Eve was created but He gave it again once she was created (Gen. 1 & Gen. 3)
3. No command to teach or not teach is in the Genesis account
4. God called both to account for what they each did and neither was called to account for the other person.
5. God didn’t say that Eve “should” follow Adam out of the garden. He only said that she “would”.
6. God did not say that Eve had not sinned or that being deceived made her innocent or that she wouldn’t die for what she did.
I fail to see how you connect the teaching of the comps that they add to the Scripture without a single piece of evidence on their side, to the fact of the Hebrew grammar that God kicked out the one guilty of deliberate treachery who was the only one with the rebellious sin nature. The one who was now a slave to sin was the one who was in danger of re-offending over and over again.
If you on the other hand affirm that ha’adam refers to both the man and the woman when the word is not qualified with words such as “male and female,” or “and his woman,” you leave the comps with nothing to support their theology since they must affirm that God called both the man and the woman “human”; God gave both the man and the woman the commandment (the woman was given the commandment as soon as she was created, just as the man had been given the commandment as soon as he was created) hence both men and women can teach according to ability and gifting; God called both the man and the woman and held them jointly responsible for breaking the commandment; the punishment differed according to intent; both the man and the woman were expelled from the Garden with the comforting words of a future Savior who would come and redeem the world from the consequence of their sin.
So if I exegete Scripture so that the comps don’t have a false security thinking that we agree with them, then I have to attribute to God the charge that He treated the deliberate sinner and the deceived sinner in the same way. I would have to agree that God cursed the earth on her behalf and sent Eve to force her to also work on the cursed earth while having all her babies. Does that not make God to be an unfair dictator who treats all sin the same without a care about the intent of the heart? You may be able to do that, but there is too much in the Scripture that shows that God deals individually and looks on each heart and each motive. I cannot make God out to be unkind, unfair and to place far more on the woman than God said.
TL,
Here is a screen shot from my Bible program.

what’s your program??
That will be on my wish list. 🙂 Could have saved a lot of discussion.
TL,
I have Logos 4 platinum http://www.logos.com/platinum There are other Logos versions that are less expensive but I find that in my work I need the best tools I can get. I also have additional Jewish resources beyond Logos Platinum as I do a lot of study in the historic Jewish traditions and the Jewish law.
I’ll have to wait for the Logos to get the MAC platform ready. And start saving now. 🙂
Cheryl & TL,
Such wonderful toys…uh er umm, I mean tools – you all are making me drool again. Sshhhh.
How does Gen 3:22-24 affect the comp doctrine of federal headship?
anti-spam = fall
The context and the pronouns are essential for us to understand the meaning.
Essential indeed!
Me? Having to go kicking and screaming into an exegesis? LOL! No, just the opposite
LOL! gengwall ;P
…the connection to the new testament that I haven’t shared yet.
Can’t wait!
I’d say, “Adam the leader, ruler” just got the boot ;P
I can’t imagine one trying to make that man Adam out to be some leader of God endowed with authority, over another human being, namley Eve.
He couldn’t even keep watch of the garden! What does that tell us about how well he ruled his home? ;P
The father of the dying over the mother of the living? How unsound.
Whoops, that was meant to read Genesis 3:
Paul’s words “and Adam was not deceived” in 1 Tim 2 supports the Gen 3 text saying “who was with her”…
Paul applies Adam’s education to the singular female in 1 Tim 2 just as he applies Eve’s deception to the male and female corinthians in 2 Co 11:3.
Comparing Genesis 3:22 with 3:1, “he became” makes it appear that the serpent “became” crafty just as Adam became unlike God. However that works out, humm…
Cheryl, any ideas on the serpent getting it’s name and the Hebrew?
Looks like both Adam and the serpent became something neither were created to be. Help ;P
1 Co 15 makes Gen 3:22-24 undisputable as to who is being refered to.
Genesis 4:7…from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being.
Whoops again, that was Genesis 2:7 not 4:7.
And men who lust for power and authority continue to dishonor women and deal treacherously with them.
In other words, the quote from God was “Where are you?” The quote did not include “human” or “man” or “Adam”. It was simply “Where are you?” (singular). It is a point well taken.
And it may not have been Susanna – it may have been Kay. I can’t remember it was so many comments ago.
Sorry – I could go back and check but it is in the other post. Anyway, SOMEbody was saying the ha’adam was part of what God actually said.
My error, I just see that Mark has put comments on the other post. I will have a look at his answers at http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2009/11/12/mark-head-as-authority/#comments Perhaps we can respond to his answers here as the other post has so many comments already.
Mark,
Concerning Question #3. I asked you where the Bible says that only elders could teach? I also asked you if single men are in sin for being pastors? You did not answer these questions. I would like you to answer the questions, please.
Let’s see what you did answer:
- Acts 20 show the responsibility of Elders. They are overseers, they have to keep watch and gurad against false teachers by knowing proper doctrine.
Well, it is interesting that not only is the work of an overseer something that all may strive to according to 1 Timothy 3:1, but also the chapter that you reference above (Acts 20) shows that it is the Holy Spirit who who is the one who makes people overseers.
Act 20:28 “Be on guard for yourselves and for all the flock, among which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church of God which He purchased with His own blood.
When we desire the work of an overseer, it is the Holy Spirit who gives us the ability to do the work as He enables. This is why women can be apologists who work hard at doctrine and the defense of the faith and who expose the lies of the cults and the aberrant movements coming into the church. This is my job. I work hard to protect people and many pastors have come to me for help. Are you now telling us that only men may protect the church and only men may work hard at the teaching of doctrine and exposing error?? Are you telling me that I am in sin because I have been gifted by the Holy Spirit and called into a ministry of protecting the church and teaching doctrine?
You said:
1 Tim 3 is interesting because all the ‘qualifications’ for a elder except for one are personal characteristics. The one exception is that they be ‘able to teach’- a very important responsibility.
1 Timothy 3 is about the work of an overseer (1 Timothy 3:1) and the ability to teach is a very important responsibility. It is a gift given by the Holy Spirit to both men and women. Are you saying that “able to teach” is restricted to men?
Now someone said that the masculine pronouns mean nothing because the bible uses them to refer generically. I totally agree that the bible does such a thing. Interesting though, why isn’t femine pronouns used for generic humanity- is this a hint of the resposibilty of men.
You are “hinting” that men alone are responsible, but that isn’t true. Secondly language comes from a patriarchal society and we do not get “godly hints” from language that God wants only men to teach or protect the flock. This is an extremely weak argument and it presupposes that God should not gift women at certain things because they are “male” only gifts. This is not Biblical.
Now in relation to how this fits 1 Tim 3 lets look closer. We know it can’t mean generic me and women who can be elders because of the various qualifications. For example they are to have ‘one wife’.
Of this disqualifies women and single men, then you have a lot of problems. Do you join any movement that comes against single men as elders and overseers? Do you see them as being in sin?
Also women were Deacons in the early church yet the exact same “qualification” relates to a deacon. How do you explain this?
The “personal qualifications” are rather that of faithfulness to one’s spouse if one is married.
To add to this by verse 11 we are introduced the ‘the women likewise’ which is a clear indication that the verse above are to relate ONLY to men. It is most definitely not generic. Cheryl, i meant 1 Tim 5:17 not 5:7. I apologise for the error.
On the contrary, the “women likewise” shows that the women are NOT to be excluded from the preceding words. The Holy Spirit is showing that women who desire to do the work of an overseer are not missed out. Women must also be faithful spouses and may do the work of an overseer with their qualifications as also personal faithful and upright qualifications. The “women likewise” is a problem to the complementarian position because it says that women are not exempt from 3:1 “desiring to do the work of an overseer”. It supports the egal position and makes the comp position very hard to maintain.
So I will ask you to answer the questions again. Are males who are unmarried sinning against God if they become overseers? Are “women likewise” also allowed to do the work of an overseer as 1 Tim. 3:1 allows? If not, why not? How could we hold back a woman as being in sin but not hold back a single man as being in sin? Please answer these questions, Mark and do not ignore them as you have as they are very, very important questions to us.
Hi Cheryl. I think we are starting to cross-thread again. I wonder if this discussion would go better in one of the “Maqrk” threads. Just a thought.
Mark,
Under question #9 You had originally said “The curses show who is MORE responsible for the fall.”
I answered:
Says who? Where does God say that the man is MORE responsible for the fall? Since sin comes through the man alone, and sin does not come through the woman, then the buck stops with him and she has no responsibility not less responsibility for bringing sin into the world. I know that you know the Scriptures well about that sin comes through 1 man, not one man and a little bit through the woman.
You had said that Adam was more responsible for his own sin and I answered your comments and asked further questions:
So the serpent had a higher role given by God that made him more responsible? What is Adam held more accountable for? His own sin? Is Adam more accountable for his own sin than Eve is for her own sin?
You also said “There is no mention of God distinguishing between a moderate sin (Eve) and a bad sin (Adam)” and I answered and questioned you with this:
Really? Treachery is not a bad sin? Being deceived in ignorance is on the same level as Adam’s sin? Then why did Paul say that those who sinned in ignorance (himself) could receive mercy while those who sinned wilfully (the lying false teachers) were to be kicked out of the church? Does God really ignore the heart and judge all sin alike? Is this the message you want us all to know about God?
It appears that once again you have not answered almost all of my questions. Why?
You said:
9. Gen 1-3 shows male headship in the following ways. Adam is made first. Eve is made from Adam and for Adam. Adam names his wife. Adam is addressed first. The curse because of Adam affects all of creation. Adam bears the primary resposibilty for the fall. Paul uses Gen to prove male headship in two of his argument (1 Cor 11, 1 Tim 2).
All you have done is presented a claim to leadership that is never claimed in the Bible. Paul does not say that Adam is leader because he was created first. Where do you get that from? You also say that “Adam bears the primary responsibility for the fall” when I questioned you where you got that from? Adam never bears “primary” responsibility but the full responsibility. Once again you have merely by-passed by questions. I wonder if you are even seeing the questions, or if you are to busy to pay attention? Why would you consistently evade the questions and give facts that have no bearing on leadership? The Bible never ever states that the first one is to be the leader. King David was the last child, not the first. What’s with that if the Bible principle is that the first is the designated leader?
Now you said “Does God really ignore the heart and judge all sin alike?”
My response is absolutely! “No one is righteous, not one”.
You are bypassing my question AGAIN! We are not dealing with righteousness, but how God judges between sins. What you are claiming about God is that He has no interest in our heart…that He judges deception the same as rebellion. You, my friend, have misrepresented God. Perhaps you would like to answer these Scriptures.
Matthew 10:15 “Truly I say to you, it will be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrah in the day of judgment than for that city.
Joh 15:22 “If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not have sin, but now they have no excuse for their sin.
Joh 9:41 Jesus said to them, “If you were blind, you would have no sin; but since you say, ‘We see,’ your sin remains.
Act 17:30 “Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent,
Rom 1:20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
Rom 1:21 For even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
Rom 1:22 Professing to be wise, they became fools,Jas 4:17 Therefore, to one who knows the right thing to do and does not do it, to him it is sin.
1Sa 16:7 But the LORD said to Samuel, “Do not look at his appearance or at the height of his stature, because I have rejected him; for God sees not as man sees, for man looks at the outward appearance, but the LORD looks at the heart.”
1Ch 28:9 “As for you, my son Solomon, know the God of your father, and serve Him with a whole heart and a willing mind; for the LORD searches all hearts, and understands every intent of the thoughts. If you seek Him, He will let you find Him; but if you forsake Him, He will reject you forever.
Heb 4:12 For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart.
I could go on and on about God looking on the heart and the intentions of the heart, but I think these verses should suffice. How do you answer the Scriptures where God judges the heart and the intentions?
None of us deserve anything from God except punishment- this is the gospel.
You are going off topic. The issue is not about deserving good things from God, but about the punishment for sin and the differences between different motives. Did God judge differently between Adam and Eve’s sin or not? What will you do with all the Scriptures where God says that he deals differently with ignorance than with rebellion? Why do you deny that God is fair and just in this way? Why do you wish to uphold the righteousness of Adam as “leader” and want to make Eve to have part of bringing sin into the world when the Scripture is clear that she had no part and Adam bore the blame alone?
Under question #10 I asked:
If Adam was a leader of his wife, then he would have to be called to account for his failed “role” as a leader. Eve also would have to be called to account for failing to follow her “leader”. Did Eve get chastised for failing to follow Adam?
Once again you completely failed to address my questions. Instead of answering these questions you said:
- I believe that i will be held accountable for my leadership or lack of as a husband and a father, in the same way that leaders of the church will be held accountable for the way they lead the church. Cheryl, do you think you will be held accountable for what you are teaching people about this issue?
We are each accountable for what we do, but we are not accountable for what others do. I will certainly be held accountable for the use of my gifts along with the teaching that I do, but please tell me how do you connect that together with being accountable for your wife? Where do you get that from the Scriptures?
You said:
a. Also you said “And no, Adam does not name her until sin enters the world. God names her “woman” first (Genesis 2:22) and Adam merely confirms that she is his uniquely own flesh and bone hence the God-term of “woman”.”
Really Cheryl? Where is it recorded that God call her ‘woman’ and not Adam. You say 2:22 but its not there.
You have twisted my words and claimed something that I did not say. I did not say that God called her woman. God named her woman. That is what I said. I have no idea of what God actually “called” her by name as the Scripture is silent on that. The fact is that Genesis 2:22 shows that she was namedwoman before Adam affirmed her as his flesh and blood. Would you please deal with this and answer it? How do you get Adam taking authority over Eve by his agreeing that she was “woman” as his own flesh and blood? Where does Adam or God say that this was an act of “leadership” instead of an acceptance of her very nature?
It says God made a woman not that God called her woman.
Honestly Mark, I think that you must just take what I write and it goes right over your head. Why else would you misrepresent me? The fact is that God created a “woman”. Do you agree?
When Adam speaks in verse 23 he names her ‘woman’ “she shall be called woman”. So Adam’s naming is pre-fall not as a result of his sinful nature to dominate her.
“Woman” is not her name. And God has already created her as “woman” so Adam’s recognizing that fact cannot be used to create an authority over her that isn’t there. God never tells Adam to take authority over Eve. Why?
In fact he gives her a glorious honouring name after the fall. There is no indication that her naming is due to sinful domination.
The fact is that Adam agrees that she is the mother of the living (in contrast to him being the father of the dying). However his “naming” her Eve after the fall cannot be used to prove his authority over her before the fall. The fact that he took sinful domination over her after the fall is undisputed. Even comp writers will agree to that. Whether Adam’s “naming” her Eve is a sinful act of not is not the issue here. The fact is that he didn’t “name” her before the fall so it cannot be used to prove that God’s plan was for Adam to have an authority over Eve. Can you prove otherwise?
“Give me just one verse that says that a husband has leadership over his wife.”
Simply Eph 5:22-23. Again you dismiss these type of passages because of the debate on ‘head’ but honestly how is the husband the source of his wife. Why is headship and submission related back to Christ and the church if it is only about ‘sourceness”. Makes absolutely no sense
So you have shown that there is not a single passage that says the husband is to take authority over the wife. And you make “head of” to mean “authority over“. Adam is the source of Eve. Is that disputed? How can a husband be the “head of” his wife in the time that this was written? By sacrificing for her and supplying as the source of her nourishment. He feeds her and cares for her as he does his own body. How is this same passage applicable today? The husband can still be the source of his wife by sacrificing to give her everything that she needs so that she can use her gifts without restriction and thus he lifts her up.
My husband has sacrificed for me and he has stood up for me when men tried to silence me. My husband has acted as a source of supply to open the door for me whenever he could so that I was allowed without hindrance to serve God. He became to me a source of encouragement and a source of life as one who lays down his life for his wife so that she (me) can bloom.
In what way have you sacrificed so that your wife can be all she can be in the Lord? What doors have you opened for her to serve that others tried to shut in her face? In what way have you lifted her up when she needed someone to speak on her behalf to stop someone from being prejudiced against her? How did you make sure that she could serve the Lord Jesus in every way that He has gifted and called her? Or have you made sure that she knows her place? Have you made sure that the doors are shut for her so that she cannot go through them? Where is a husband ever told to stop a wife from serving the Lord?
Finally regarding Hosea 6:7. You said that God calls Adam’s sin treacherous, but have failed to show 1 verse which explicitly has God saying ‘Adam’s sin was treacherous. The prophecy is targeted at Israel not Adam, so to emphasise Adam as the primary interest is wrong. A comparision is simply made to the covenant breaking of both Adam and Israel.
I didn’t say that Adam was the primary interest. I said that Adam’s sin is called treachery in Hosea 6:7. When Israel’s terrible unfaithfulness is compared to Adam’s sin, they are said to have sinned with treachery just as Adam did. Now can you please explain why the terrible sin of Israel is compared to Adam’s sin? Why are both called treacherous acts? Why do you ignore Adam’s sin as treacherous? Why do you equate Eve’s sin as equal to Adam’s sin? Is it because Adam must be lifted up in the eyes of complementarians in order to “prove” a male leadership in creation? Is it right to downplay the treachery of Adam in order to promote him as “leader”? How is it that God would take the treacherous one and make him the ruler over the woman? If he failed her before he ate the fruit, then how could God have confirmed a “leadership” and “authority” of the man over the woman after the fall?
I am not thrilled that we waited so long for you to answer but you have ignored almost all of my questions. Are you ever planning to actually answer the questions? If the comp position stands strong, it will not be by ignoring the hard questions. The truth is willing to answer questions no matter how hard they are. Error tends to skip over the hard questions because error is afraid. I trust that you are one who has a good heart which follows hard after the Lord Jesus. I encourage you to use that good heart to answer the questions without fear.
72 & 73
Thanks gengwall and Cheryl, I got it now.
97 – My point is that it’s always about Adam’s glorious leadership in comp doctrine rather than the reality of his disgrace which contradicts “glorious leadership”.
gengwall,
I shudder to think what extra words the Message put in Romans 5 to make that square up.
So Peterson says in his translation the exact opposite of what Scripture says. MacArthur does too. After somebody quoted him I went and read all 4 sermons about the curse on the man and the woman. Here’s what he has to say about Adam not being deceived:
“We know from 1st Timothy 2 that he was “not deceived.” It tells us there: The man was “not deceived.” He was not deceived by Satan and, therefore, we can assume that perhaps he wasn’t even there when the conversation was going on between Satan and Eve. And that would have been the way Satan would have chosen to have it, so that he could pull the woman out from the man’s protection and authority, and deceive her.” http://www.biblebb.com/files/mac/90-245.htm
So according to MacArthur, since Adam wasn’t deceived “we can assume” he wasn’ t there. But Scripture says the exact opposite. Gen 3:6 “she gave some to her husband who was with her.” We can assume nothing of the kind, and there is no need for assumptions at all!
I should have added – the conclusion would be “anyone who believes the husband is the leader is sinning by rejecting the biblical truth Romans 5”
The sudden silence here is unnerving.
LOL – I am not sure what a “falcor” is, but I know it wasn;t what I meant. I menat “flavors”. I am looking at my keyboard in dismay even as I type this wondering how I typed that.
Perhaps, I should limit my involvement while I’m sick. I get a tad bit snotty and blunt! 🙂
Your Tags
Personal labels you apply to any item — separate from system topics. Tags are shared across all databases. Visit /tags to browse all your tags.
...more
Personal labels you apply to any item — separate from system topics. Tags are shared across all databases. Visit /tags to browse all your tags.
...more