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Scripture Commentary article 2006-09-23

Can Complementarians Agree To Disagree

I sent a copy of our DVD “Women in Ministry Silenced or Set Free. ” to the Council on Biblical Manhood and Womanhood in February of 2006 and this summer I finally received a response

John 3:4 John 3:6 Lamentations 6:1 1 Timothy 2 Women in Leadership Complementarianism
Mike Winger idea 2019-01-30

1 John 3:4 — "sin is lawlessness" — Hebrew Roots argument: lawlessness = breaking Torah, therefore sin = breaking Torah, therefore obeying Torah is mandatory

Mike walks through the Hebrew Roots syllogism built on 1 John 3:4 in step-by-step form.

1 John 3:4 Law of Moses Torah Equivocation fallacy
Mike Winger idea 2019-01-30

Greek term anomia (lawlessness) does not exclusively mean violation of the Mosaic law — it has diverse NT usage

Mike makes a focused philological argument about the Greek word anomia.

1 John 3:4 Equivocation fallacy 1 John 3:4 Anomia
Mike Winger idea 2019-05-08

The word 'law' in 1 John 3:4 does not specifically mean the Mosaic law but any law or command God has revealed; Gentiles had moral law before Moses

Response to question about whether Christians must keep the Mosaic Sabbath since sin is the transgression of the law

Romans 2 1 John 3:4 Hebrew Roots movement Romans 2 sin
Mike Winger idea 2019-05-15

Q&A: 1 John 3:4 — "sin is lawlessness" refers to transgression of God's commands broadly, not specifically the Law of Moses

Response to a Hebrew Roots proof text

1 John 3:4 1 John 3:4 anomia lawlessness
Mike Winger idea 2021-03-12

1 John 3:4-10 does not teach sinless perfectionism — the Greek present tense indicates habitual lifestyle of sin, not single acts

Q14 from Shauna Whitting: Does 1 John 3:4-10 mean you are not a real Christian if you still struggle with sin?

1 John 2:1 1 John 3:4-10 habitual sin limited atonement propitiation
Mike Winger idea 2021-05-14

1 John 3:4 ("sin is lawlessness") doesn't mean Christians must keep the Mosaic Law — "lawlessness" means rebellion against God's moral authority, not specifically violating Torah commands. The New Testament redefines how we relate to God's moral standards.

Q19: Does 1 John 3:4 mean the Law of Moses still applies?

1 John 3:4 1 John 3 Moses 1 John 3:4 1 John 3
Mike Winger idea 2025-10-03

Why is David in Heaven?: Can you explain how David would be in Heaven when he knew 1 wife was God’s design but was living in continuous sin (1 John 3:4-9, 1 Corinthians 6:9-11, Hebrews 10: 26, Ephesians 5:3-7)?

Q&A question: Why is David in Heaven?

1 Corinthians 6 Ephesians 5 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 David marriage 1 Corinthians 6