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Scripture Commentary tweet 2024-06-18

@slow_down_Jess @cjohnsonn0311 @_AndrewHale Yes, and I spent time explaining "one wife husband" and how it is an idiom. Gary, I don't know where you were trained or what Greek you took, but the "he"'s in the entirety of 1Ti 3:1-13 and Titus 1:5-9 ar...

@slow_down_Jess @cjohnsonn0311 @_AndrewHale Yes, and I spent time explaining "one wife husband" and how it is an idiom. Gary, I don't know where you were trained or what Greek you took, but the "he"'

Titus 1:5-9 1Ti 3:1-13 debate

Scripture Commentary tweet 2024-06-16

@FlyingMonkey24 @jhrjamharrea @smashbaals I don’t think J R looked at the Greek.

@FlyingMonkey24 @jhrjamharrea @smashbaals I don’t think J R looked at the Greek. He’s just in a tiffy because I think I might be right and that the other translations might be wrong. You think he’d j

@slow_down_Jess @cjohnsonn0311 @_AndrewHale Yes, and I spent time explaining "one wife husband" and how it is an idiom. Gary, I don't know where you were trained or what Greek you took, but the "he"'s in the entirety of 1Ti 3:1-13 and Titus 1:5-9 ar...

@FlyingMonkey24 @jhrjamharrea @smashbaals I don’t think J R looked at the Greek.

@Twinjeremiah @BenZeisloft The Greek is μιᾶς γυναικὸς ἄνδρα or literally "one wife husband." This phrase is stated twice, once in v2 for elders and once in v12 for deacons. The NIV translates as "faithful to his wife" but I'm asserting that this is a...

@akorb034 @avyargo @jdexistmusic @LoblollyPine73 @Eric_Conn It is sad that the m

@avyargo @LoblollyPine73 @Eric_Conn “Likewise their wives” was a translation choice. Note “their” and “must be” are not in the Greek. The NASB says, “Likewise, women…” If ‘their wives’ is correct, why are the wives of deacons highlighted but not of ...

@CalebDixonSmith @DBryanRhodes @Gates_of_Derry "For you are *all sons* of God th

@DBryanRhodes @Grump_Old_Man @ronhenzel @Gates_of_Derry @CalebDixonSmith No, I d

@spaceangelvoice I'm not a fan of the everything that came from the age of enlightenment, but yes, in Paul's writing we have very clearly that there is a new unified "person" that is called the Christian and the walls that formerly existed are now to...

@Here4Now0829 @sssssss09775798 “One wife husband” is an idiom not a requirement for them to be married men. Paul wasn’t married and is most definitely an overseer, and Timothy doesn’t appear to be married either. “If a MAN desire…” is a bad translat...

@Grump_Old_Man “A man” and all the “he”‘s are inserted in English. The Greek has

@Grump_Old_Man @BahBahBased @MikeWingerii Yes but it’s referring to a specific wife who needs first to learn the truth before she teaches. Paul cannot meet his own qualifications. You think that’s the correct interpretation? “If a man” is “if anyon...

@Grump_Old_Man @BahBahBased @MikeWingerii I suppose you think I’ve never read this passage before? How does this passage exclude women? Does it forbid single men? Men without children (plural)? Even if you read that it’s referring to men (even thou...

@zorropundit @MikeWingerii According to my Greek dictionary, ethnic are the non

@LogicSaysBurn @Dayagent47 Curious then that the word is feminine in v1. For the

@3GNRTX Ep 5:21 says “Submit to one another out of reverence for Christ.” The “be subject” verb shown in the English you quoted from v22 is not in the Greek as it comes from v21. What does this mean? It means that whatever v22 and following are sayin...

@3GNRTX Sometimes the Greek aner is used to refer to any person male or female, but most of the time it refers to males. As v9-10 refers to women, I see no reason to take v8 as anything other then men (plural). This doesn’t mean that the women weren’...

@Cassie_ByGrace @AleahPursley @Eric_Conn Please show me in the Greek where “a sy

@JimmyParker87 @RevChrisDavis But the “he”’s are not explicitly in the Greek. Th

@Manny_Clay1 @TarienCole If other is implied (it is not in the Greek) then it wo

@JW_Lumley Feel free to correct this translation from the Greek if you think you can prove it got it wrong. BTW, how does nature teach you that there's a difference between the head hair on a male and a female? I can see that my arm and leg hair sto...

@c_mosias Hm. Not sure if your reply is a joke or not given your Jamaican transl

@TarienCole Other is not in the Greek. It should be translated “we have no such

@InnovationHQ2 @SpecterAndBride @tigereyes1972 So, in the translation you provided, the translators inserted the word “other” but that’s not in the Greek. It simply says “no such practice.” The Greek is literally “practice not have.” And no, the chu...

@PastorRobMonroe @KaeleyT @megbasham The Greek of 1Co 11:14 is not being translated correctly. Look at how the ISV translates it: "Nature itself teaches you neither that it is disgraceful for a man to have long hair nor that hair is a woman’s glory,...

@PastorRobMonroe @KaeleyT @megbasham Your posts should be chained as I don’t know what this one is the continuation of. 1Ti 3:1-13 and Tit 1:5-9 in no way restrict elders to be male. You likely get there by reading the English not realizing that the...

@ronhenzel @thecrazypastor In the following I clearly mark Paul’s usage of the contrastive ‘or’ (Greek: ἢ) in 1 Cor: 1Co 1:13 - "Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you? *ἢ* were you baptized in the name of Paul?" 1Co 4:21 - "What do you wish...

@ronhenzel 1. Paul writes in 1Co 7:1, "Now concerning the things about which you wrote..." ⎯ since there are no quotation marks in the Greek manuscripts, any quotations are determined by the details in the context. Your statement that there's nothin...

@kjvchurches @iheartJ37 @MikeWingerii The LXX is mythological? It was the Greek

@MikeWingerii @kjvchurches How can you say the feminine form diakonon wasn’t available when Paul uses the feminine in Rom 16:1 for Phoebe? Your comment makes absolutely no sense. I reviewed your notes on episode 4 where you state “The Greek word dia...

@scottspeig If it was just a salvific issue then Greeks, slaves and women (v28)

@BradPatriarch @pastherandie Bradley, the Greek simply says μιᾶς γυναικὸς ἄνδρα (one wife husband)⎯"woman" is in the genitive form and "man" in the accusative, thus together this translates as wife and husband. The emphasis in the Greek is on "one." ...

@lunarCelerity Here are a few reasons. In Greek, word ordering isn’t the same as in English. There is no boldface so by putting a word first you emphasize it like bolding. Most translators are men and they come to the text with a bias towards men and...

@ronhenzel Further, this is why Paul reaches to a classical Greek word to get a very specific meaning: “to commit murder of one’s own kin by one’s own hand”—like how Eve handed the fruit to Adam and he ate and brought death to humanity, so also this ...

@ronhenzel That’s not how this works, Ron. You are just appealing to authority as if you or Wallace, despite all the training in Greek and grammar, are someone completely infallible and never make mistakes. Generic nouns are not unique to Greek. The...

@ronhenzel Yeah, so I really do love Wallace, but it doesn’t mean all his conclusions are right. “A woman” is generic until we hit v14 where we clearly see the anaphoric use of the article. There’s nothing in Wallace’s Greek Grammar Beyond the Basic...

@KyleYoakum @ScottCross_8 I’ll have to take a look at what Bruce said but “symbo

@carol66944 Interesting proposition. Where is the “declarative infinitive” discu

@ScottCross_8 @ronhenzel @JollyStine @pastherandie @peace_got @ymmotrojam @MikeWingerii What Ron said is disingenuous. He knows that this has nothing to do with beginner Greek. I can even show Dr Wallace saying that the article is not required to poi...

@ronhenzel @JollyStine @pastherandie @peace_got @ymmotrojam @MikeWingerii Your s

@ronhenzel @JollyStine @pastherandie @peace_got @ymmotrojam @MikeWingerii From Dr. Wallace in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: “Most individualizing articles will be anaphoric in a very broad sense. That is, they will be used to point out something t...

@ronhenzel @JollyStine @pastherandie @peace_got @ymmotrojam @MikeWingerii Ron, y

@SwordMasterPub @johnmarkallen James does know some Greek. I wanted to find some

@SwordMasterPub You have to refer to the Greek not the English. If Peter could

@peace_got @MargMowczko @AlistairRobert7 @JollyStine @pastherandie @Robert_S_Mor

@JeremyMBauman @RBM7211 @MikeWingerii @TerranWilliams4 Paul is speaking to all b

@EtAbundatGratia @mythreesonsb @MikeWingerii Really? Which translation are you getting that from? Is there an imperative for the command ('must not')? To exclude females, he would have to say "must not be a woman." It's not there...or anywhere. Here...

@Torncurtainorg @AWoytuik @MikeWingerii Eph 5:21 covers that. It’s mutual…check the Greek. 1 Cor 7:4 shows the husband doesn’t have authority over his own body, the only instance of gender authority and it’s …equal: "The wife does not have authority...

@peace_got @pastherandie @MikeWingerii Greek doesn't help? The NT wasn't written in English. About "complementarianism" being the dominant view until the middle of the 20th century...(chuckles)... The formalization of complementarian theology and ...

@NotTheBaptizer @joyklaprade @MikeWingerii I misused Greek? Is that the basis fo

@deadtosin610 @ServBotPhil @JollyStine You seem really stuck on the male form of the word. Have you taken any Greek? The Bible was not written in English, though we do similar things in most languages. I still call a mixed group "guys." And there are...

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@CalebDixonSmith @DBryanRhodes @Gates_of_Derry "For you are all sons of God th

@ronhenzel @thecrazypastor In the following I clearly mark Paul’s usage of the contrastive ‘or’ (Greek: ἢ) in 1 Cor: 1Co 1:13 - "Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you? ἢ were you baptized in the name of Paul?" 1Co 4:21 - "What do you wish...